Sunday, June 30, 2019

CBIC defines outgoing international tourist : Notification No. 11 /2019–Central Tax (Rate)

MINISTRY OF FINANCE

(Department of Revenue)

NOTIFICATION

New Delhi, the 29th June, 2019

No. 11 /2019–Central Tax (Rate)

G.S.R. 460(E).—In exercise of the powers conferred by section 55 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017), the Central Government, on the recommendations of the Council, hereby specifies retail outlets established in the departure area of an international airport, beyond the immigration counters, making tax free supply of goods to an outgoing international tourist, as class of persons who shall be entitled to claim refund of applicable central tax paid on inward supply of such goods, subject to the conditions specified in rule 95A of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017.

Explanation.-For the purposes of this notification, the expression “outgoing international tourist” shall mean a person not normally resident in India, who enters India for a stay of not more than six months for legitimate non-immigrant purposes.

2. This notification shall come into force with effect from the 1st day of July, 2019.

[F. No. 354/90/2019-TRU]

RUCHI BISHT, Under Secy.

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ARE YOU PAYING TAXES ON EXCHANGE OF ASSETS?

Sometimes we exchange assets such as immovable property and ignore the taxation aspect thinking that as there is no money transaction, no tax is applicable.  Let us understand the correct tax implications in such cases. What is the meaning of exchange? In exchange, the transfer of property takes place for a consideration other than money, two persons mutually transfer the ownership of their properties from one to other.

Immovable  properties:- In the case of exchange of immovable properties between two persons‘A’  and ‘B’, when property is transferred by A to B as well as another property is transferred by B to A apparent consideration for A  is value of property of B and similarly for B it is the value of property of A.

Invocation of Section 50D:- Section 50 D provides that where the consideration received as a result of transfer of  a capital asset is not ascertainable then for the  purpose of computing capital gains the Fair Market Value of the said assets on the date of transfer will be the Full Value of Consideration received  as a result of transfer. However, for invoking section 50D a finding by the AO to the effect that consideration received as a result of transfer of capital assets is not ascertainable is necessary and is a precondition. Thus, FVC for computing capital gains on exchange of immovable properties would be the FMV of the properties transferred.

Involvement of Section 56(2)(x);- In case of transfer by way of exchange, if the FMV  of property received is more than the FMV of property transferred by Rs 50,000 then addition can be made u/s 56(2)(x). Let us understood this concept with the help of an example. A transfers his land to B whose FMV is Rs 10 lakhs and in exchange he gets building whose FMV is Rs 15 lakhs. Now capital gains in the hands of A will be calculated by takingFVC  of at Rs 10 lakhs  in accordance with section50D. In addition to that as the FMV of property received of A exceeds the FMV of property transferred by Rs 5 lakhs addition u/s 56(2)(x) shall be made to that extent.

Taxability and Valuation under GST;- At the outset it can be stated that exchange of assets is specifically included in the definition of supply which states “supply” includes all forms of supply of goods or services or both such as sale, transfer, barter, exchange, license, lease or disposal made or agreed to be made for a consideration by a  personin the course of or furtherance of business.

Now the question is that how the valuation of exchange transactions is to be done. For  this Rule 27 of CGST Rules ,2017 comes to the rescue which states as under;-

1 Value of Supply shall be Open Market Value (OMV) of such supply. However, it is necessary that supplier is not related to recipient and price is the sole consideration.

2 If the OMV is not available the value shall be sum of total of monetary consideration and money equivalent or non-monetary consideration. For example, a refrigerator is supplied for Rs 20000 along with an offer of exchange of an old refrigeration valued at Rs 4000.In such a case value of supply of refrigeration is Rs 24000.

3 If the value of supply is not determinable under clause (i) or (ii) the value of supply shall be the value of supply of goods or services or both of like kind and quality ,which means any  other supply of goods or services made under similar circumstances.

4 If the value cannot be determined on the basis of any of the methods mentioned above, then as per Rule 30 value shall be 110% of the cost of production or acquisition or cost of provision of such services.

If Rule 30 cannot be applied then Rule 31 is to be applied which prescribes residual method i.e. value is to be determined using reasonable means.

Availability of Input Tax Credit;-

ITC of the GST paid shall be allowed to both the parties. However, if the supplier is a composition dealer then ITC is denied to recipient.

CONCLUSION

To summarize it must be borne in mind that in exchange of assets there are implications under direct as well indirect taxes. For direct taxation, one has to follow the principles laid down in section 50C and Section56(2)(x) as given above. Also, care should be taken in calculating indirect taxes in case of exchange of assets or services.

The author is a practicing Chartered Accountant and can be contacted at sandeep@kcccas.com. Any comments or queries are welcome.

DISCLAIMER

The information provided in this article is for general informational purposes only. All efforts have been made to provide accurate information in this document, however it should not be perceived as a professional or legal advice. Reader should consult a professional before making any decision based upon this document. Under no circumstance author or the publisher shall have any liability to you for any loss or damage of any kind incurred as a result of the use of this information.

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ICAI President’s Message – July 2019 – (29-06-2019)

Refund of taxes paid on inward supply of indigenous goods by retail outlets at international airport

Refund of taxes paid on inward supply of indigenous goods by retail outlets at international airport

Circular on Refund of taxes paid on inward supply of indigenous goods by retail outlets established at departure area of the international airport beyond immigration counters when supplied to outgoing international tourist against foreign exchange has been issued by CBIC.

Same is given below for reference:

Circular No. 106/25/2019-GST

CBEC-20/16/04/2018-GST

Government of India

Ministry of Finance

Department of Revenue

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs

GST Policy Wing

****

New Delhi, Dated the 29th June, 2019

To,

The Principal Chief Commissioners / Chief Commissioners / Principal Commissioners / Commissioners of Central Tax (All)

The Principal Chief Commissioners / Chief Commissioners / Principal Commissioners / Commissioners of Customs (All)

The Principal Director Generals / Director Generals (All) The Principal CCA, CBIC

Madam / Sir,

Subject: – Refund of taxes paid on inward supply of indigenous goods by retail outlets established at departure area of the international airport beyond immigration counters when supplied to outgoing international tourist against foreign exchange -reg.

The Government vide notification no. 11/2019-Central Tax (Rate), 10/2019-Integrated Tax (Rate) and 11/2019-Union territory Tax (Rate) all dated 29.06.2019 issued in exercise of powers under section 55 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (hereinafter referred to as the „CGST Act‟) has notified that the retail outlets established at departure area of the international airport beyond immigration counters shall be entitled to claim refund of all applicable Central tax, Integrated tax, Union territory tax and Compensation cess paid by them on inward supplies of indigenous goods received by them for the purposes of subsequent supply of goods to outgoing international tourists i.e. to a person not normally resident in India, who enters India for a stay of not more than six months for legitimate non-immigrant purposes against foreign exchange (hereinafter referred to as the “eligible passengers”). Identical notifications have been issued by the State or Union territory Governments under the respective State Goods and Services Tax Acts (hereinafter referred to as the “SGST Act”) or Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Acts (hereinafter referred to as the “UTGST Act”) also to provide for refund of applicable State or Union territory tax.

2. With a view to ensuring expeditious processing of refund claims, the Board, in exercise of its powers conferred under section 168(1) of the CGST Act, hereby specifies the conditions, manner and procedure for filing and processing of such refund claims in succeeding paras.

3. Duty Free Shops and Duty Paid Shops: –It has been recognized that international airports, house retail shops of two types – ‘Duty Free Shops’ (hereinafter referred to as “DFS”) which are point of sale for goods sourced from a warehoused licensed under Section 58A of the Customs Act, 1962 (hereinafter referred to as the “Customs Act”) and duty paid indigenous goods and „Duty Paid Shops‟ (hereinafter referred to as “DPS”) retailing duty paid indigenous goods.

4. Procurement and supply of imported / warehoused goods: – The procedure for procurement of imported / warehoused goods is governed by the provisions contained in Customs Act. The procedure and applicable rules as specified under the Customs Act are required to be followed for procurement and supply of such goods.

5. Procurement of indigenous goods: – Under GST regime there is no special procedure for procurement of indigenous goods for sale by DFS or DPS. Therefore, all indigenous goods would have to be procured by DFS or DPS on payment of applicable tax when procured from the domestic market.

6. Supply of indigenous goods by DFS or DPS established at departure area of the international airport beyond immigration counters (hereinafter referred to as “the retail outlets”) to eligible passengers: The sale of indigenous goods procured from domestic market by retail outlets to an eligible passenger is a “supply” under GST law and is subject to levy of Integrated tax but the same has been exempted vide notification No. 11/2019-Integrated Tax (Rate) and 01/2019-Compensation Cess (Rate) both dated 29.06.2019. Therefore, retail outlets will supply such indigenous goods without collecting any taxes from the eligible passenger and may apply for refund as per procedure explained in succeeding paragraphs.

7. Who is eligible for refund:

7.1. Registration under CGST Act: The retail outlets applying for refund shall be registered under the provisions of section 22 of the CGST Act read with the rules made there under and shall have a valid GSTIN.

7.2. Location of retail outlets: Such retail outlets shall be established at departure area of the international airport beyond immigration counters and shall be entitled to claim a refund of all applicable Central tax, State tax, Integrated tax, Union territory tax and Compensation cess paid by them on all inward supplies of indigenous goods received for the purposes of subsequent supply of such goods to the eligible passengers.

8. Procedure for applying for refunds:

8.1. Maintenance of Records: The records with respect to duty paid indigenous goods being brought to the retail outlets and their supplies to eligible passengers shall be maintained as per Annexure A in electronic form. The data shall be kept updated, accurate and complete at all times by such retail outlets and shall be available for inspection/verification of the proper officer of central tax at any time. The electronic records must incorporate the feature of an audit trail, which means a secure, computer generated, time stamped record that allows for reconstruction of the course of events relating to the creation, modification or deletion of an electronic record and includes actions at the record or system level, such as, attempts to access the system or delete or modify a record.

8.2. Invoice-based refund: It is clarified that the refund to be granted to retail outlets is not on account of the accumulated input tax credit but is refund based on the invoices of the inward supplies of indigenous goods received by them. As stated in para 6 above, the supply made by such retail outlets to eligible passengers has been exempted vide notification No. 11/2019-Integrated Tax (Rate) and 01/2019-Compensation Cess (Rate) both dated 29.06.2019 and therefore such retail outlets will not be eligible for input tax credit of taxes paid on such inward supplies and the same will have to be reversed in accordance the provisions of the CGST Act read with the rules made thereunder. It is also clarified that no refund of tax paid on input services, if any, will be granted to the retail outlets.

8.3. Any supply made to an eligible passenger by the retail outlets without payment of taxes by such retail outlets shall require the following documents / declarations:

(a) Details of the Passport (via Passport Reading Machine);

(b) Details of the Boarding Pass (via a barcode scanning reading device);

(c) A passenger declaration as per Annexure B;

(d) A copy of the invoice clearly evidencing that no tax was charged from the eligible passenger by the retail outlet.

8.4. The retail outlets will be required to prominently display a notice that international tourists are eligible for purchase of goods without payment of domestic taxes.

8.5. Manual filing of refund claims: In terms of rule 95A of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 (hereinafter referred to as the „CGST Rules‟) as inserted vide notification No. 31/2019-Central Tax dated 28.06.2019, the retail outlets are required to apply for refund on a monthly or quarterly basis depending upon the frequency of furnishing of return in FORM GSTR-3B. Till the time the online utility for filing the refund claim is made available on the common portal, these retail outlets shall apply for refund by filing an application in FORM GST RFD-10B , as inserted vide notification No. 31/2019-Central Tax dated 28.06.2019 manually to the jurisdictional proper officer. The said refund application shall be accompanied with the following documents:

(i) An undertaking by the retail outlets stating that the indigenous goods on which refund is being claimed have been received by such retail outlets;

(ii) An undertaking by the retail outlets stating that the indigenous goods on which refund is being claimed have been sold to eligible passengers;

(iii) Copies of the valid return furnished in FORM GSTR – 3B by the retail outlets for the period covered in the refund claim;

(iv) Copies of FORM GSTR-2A for the period covered in the refund claim; and

(v) Copies of the attested hard copies of the invoices on which refund is claimed but which are not reflected in FORM GSTR-2A.

9. Processing and sanction of the refund claim :

9.1. Upon receipt of the complete application in FORM GST RFD-10B, an acknowledgement shall be issued manually by the proper officer within 15 days of the receipt of application in FORM GST RFD-02. In case of any deficiencies or any additional information is required, the same shall be communicated to the retail outlets by issuing a deficiency memo manually in FORM GST RFD-03 by the proper officer within 15 days of the receipt of the refund application. Only one deficiency memo should be issued against one refund application which is complete in all respects.

9.2. The proper officer shall validate the GSTIN details on the common portal to ascertain whether the return in FORM GSTR- 3B has been filed by the retail outlets. The proper officer may scrutinize the details contained in FORM RFD-10B, FORM GSTR-3B and FORM GSTR-2A. The proper officer may rely upon FORM GSTR-2A as an evidence of the accountal of the supply received by them in relation to which the refund has been claimed by the retail outlets. Normally, officers are advised not to call for hard copies of invoices or details contained in Annexure A. As clarified in clause (v) of Para 8.5 above, it is reiterated that the retail outlets would be required to submit hard copies of only those invoices of inward supplies that have not been reflected in FORM GSTR-2A.

9.3. The proper officer shall issue the refund order manually in FORM GST RFD-06 along with the manual payment advice in FORM GST RFD-05 for each head i.e., Central tax/State tax/Union territory tax/Integrated tax/Compensation Cess. The amount of sanctioned refund along with the bank account details of the retail outlets shall be manually submitted in the PFMS system by the jurisdictional Division‟s DDO and a signed copy of the sanction order shall be sent to the PAO for disbursal of the said amount.

9.4. Where any refund has been made in respect of an invoice without the tax having been paid to the Government or where the supply of such goods was not made to an eligible passenger, such amount refunded shall be recovered along with interest as per the provisions contained in the section 73 or section 74 of the CGST Act, as the case may be.

9.5. It is clarified that the retail outlets will apply for refund with the jurisdictional Central tax/State tax authority only, however, the payment of the sanctioned refund amount in relation to Central tax / Integrated tax / Compensation Cess shall be made by the Central tax authority while payment of the sanctioned refund amount in relation to State Tax / Union Territory Tax shall be made by the State tax/Union Territory tax authority. It therefore becomes necessary that the refund order issued by the proper officer of Central Tax is duly communicated to the concerned counter-part tax authority within seven days for the purpose of disbursal of the remaining sanctioned refund amount. The procedure outlined in para 6.0 of Circular No.24/24/2017-GST dated 21st December 2017 should be followed in this regard.

10. The scheme shall be effective from 01.07.2019 and would be applicable in respect of all supplies made to eligible passengers after the said date. In other words, retail outlets would be eligible to claim refund of taxes paid on inward supplies of indigenous goods received by them even prior to 01.07.2019 as long as all the conditions laid down in Rule 95A of the CGST Rules and this circular are fulfilled.

11. It is requested that suitable trade notices may be issued to publicize the contents of this circular.

12. Difficulty, if any, in implementation of the above instructions may please be brought to the notice of the Board. Hindi version would follow.

(Upender Gupta)
Principal Commissioner (GST)

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Due Date Compliance Calender July 2019 | GST Due Date Calender July 2019

Saturday, June 29, 2019

GST applicable on dredging to improve navigability of river-bed and channels

GST applicable on dredging to improve navigability of river-bed and channels

Ruling : The recipient, namely  Orissa  Construction  Corporation  Ltd, is a government  entity  in terms of clause 2 (zfa) of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017.

The Applicant’s supply to Orissa Construction Corporation Ltd, as mentioned in  para  4.1 above, was taxable @18% under SI No 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017  –  Integrated  Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 till 12/10/2017. The supply was taxable @ 5% under SI 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated Tax  (Rate)  dated  28/06/2017.  as  amended  by Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate)  dated  13/10/2017  with  effect  from 13/10/2017 till 24/01/2018. It has since been exempted under SI No. 3A of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017, as amended by Notification No. 2/2018 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018.

1. Admissibility of the application

1.1 The Orissa Construction Corporation Limited (hereinafter the recipient) has awarded the Applicant a contract for sectioning of Sunamuhin Drainage Channel (From Narsinghapatna Bridge to Brahmadeva Resort) and from pond near Harachandi mouth to outfall of Chilika in Orissa. The Applicant seeks a ruling on whether the recipient is a government entity in terms of clause 2 (zfa) of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (hereinafter the Exemption Notification). He further seeks a ruling on the taxability of his supply in terms of the Notification No. 08/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (hereinafter the Rate Notification) and the Exemption Notification, as the case may be, and as amended from time to time. 

1.2 The question is admissible under  section 97(2)(b)  of the GST Act read with clause (xviii)  of section 20 of IGST Act,    The concerned  officer  from the Revenue  has not  objected to the admission of the application and informs that the issue raised by the Applicant is not pending or decided in any forum.

1.3 The application is, therefore, admitted.

 

2. Submissions of the Applicant

2.1 The Applicant submits that the recipient  is a government  entity,  as defined under  clause 2 (zfa) of the Exemption Notification. In support of his argument,  the  Applicant  submits  a  copy of the Balance Sheet of the recipient as on 31/03/2017, and print  out  of the  annual  return in MGT-7 to the The Applicant argues that it is ascertainable from the above documents that the recipient is registered  with the RoC as a  State Government  Company,  and the State Government owns 99.98 % of the equity shares.

2.2 The Applicant submits a copy of the communication received from the Executive  Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, under his Memo No. 698 dated 16/05/2019, wherein it is stated that the work awarded to the Applicant is part of a project under the  Department  of Water Resources, Government of Odisha,  for increasing  the storage capacity  of the channel to improve irrigation of the land. 

2.3 The Applicant further submits a copy of the communication received from the Executive Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, under his Memo No. 787 dated 04/06/2019, wherein it is stated cost of material transferred for completion of the dredging work is 5%of  the  total contract value. 

2.4 The Applicant argues that the work undertaken is in relation to a function entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution of India. 

 

3. Submission of the concerned officer from the Revenue

3.1 The concerned officer from the Revenue has refrained from offering any comment on the merit of the issue.

4. Observations and findings of the Bench

4.1 It appears from the contract that the Applicant is required to perform desiltation  by dredging the river/nallah, including fixing of pipe lines, floaters and floating pipe lines for disposing water slurry consisting of silt, sand etc. The value of the contract includes cost of labour, materials, consumables, POL, and spare parts  and accessories  for  maintenance  of the dredgers. It also includes cost of building  islands/dykes  by  providing  geo  tubes/geo fabrics and accessories or by tin sheets required for formation of bunds for dumping of the dredged materials. The contract also includes the cost of all pre and post  dredging    The contract includes the cost of clearing thickly grown water hyacinth  from  canal  and drainage channels. It is evident from the description  of the  work  that it is a composite  supply of works contract, improving and modifying the  river-bed  and  embankments.  It  further appears from the work order that 98% of the work is related to dredging. Communication received from the Executive Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, referred to in para no. 2.4, clarifies that the cost of material transferred for completion of the dredging work is 5% of the total contract value. Dredging of channels, which includes  desiltation  of  the  channels, dumping of dredged materials and building of dykes etc., therefore, appears to be  predominantly earthwork, as understood in common parlance.

4.2 It appears from the documents mentioned in para 2.1 that the recipient is a government entity, as defined under clause 2 (zfa) of the Exemption Notification.

4.3 It, therefore, appears that the Applicant is executing a works contract, more than 75% of which is earthwork. The recipient is a government entity and the work  being  executed is part of an irrigation project under the Department of Water  Resources,  Government  of Odisha.  It is, therefore taxable @ 5% with effect from 13/10/2017 in terms of SI No. 3(vii) of the Rate Notification, as it stands post amendment under Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated  Tax (Rate) dated 13/10/2017.

4.4 The question of applicability of the Exemption Notification comes into  play  with  effect from 25/01/2018, when it was amended adding SI 3A vide Notification No. 2/2018 Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018. SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification provides, “Composite supply of goods and services in which the value of supply of goods constitutes  not more than 25 per cent of the value of the said composite supply provided to the Central Government,  State Government or Union territory or local authority or a Governmental authority or a Government Entity by way of any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution or in relation  to  any  function  entrusted  to  a Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution.”

4.5 In its Circular No. 51/25/2018-GST dated 31/07/2018 the Central Government clarifies that the service tax exemption at serial No. 25(a) of Notification No. 25/2012 dated 20/06/2012 (hereinafter the ST Notification) has been substantially, although not in the same form, continued under GST vide SI No. 3 and 3A of the Exemption Notification. SI No. 25(a) of the ST notification under the service tax exempts “services provided to the Government, a local authority or a governmental authority by way of water supply, public health, sanitation, conservancy, solid waste management or slum improvement and up-gradation.” The Circular further explains in relation to the specific issue of ambulance service to the Government by a private service provider (PSP) that such service is a function of ‘public health’ entrusted to Municipalities under Art 243W of the Constitution, and, therefore, eligible for exemption under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification. 

4.6 The above Circular leaves no doubt that the phrase ‘in relation to any function’, as applied to SI 3 or 3A above, makes no substantial difference between SI No. 25(a) of the ST Notification and SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notification. Under the previous service tax regime, the exemption was limited to certain functions specified in SI No. 25(a) of the ST Notification, whereas, under the GST the ambit has been broadened to include any such functions that are performed by a panchayat or a municipality under specific provisions of the Constitution. These functions are in the nature of public welfare service that the governments on their own, and sometimes through governmental authorities/entities, do provide to the citizens. When the activity is in relation to any such function, the supply to the governments or governmental authorities/entities or local authorities is exempt from paying GST under SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notification, provided it is a pure service or a composite supply where supply of goods does not constitute more than 25% of the value.

4.7 The Applicant’s eligibility under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification should, therefore, be examined from three aspects: (1) whether the supply being made is a composite supply, where supply of goods constitutes not more than 25% of the value of the composite supply,
(2) whether the recipient is government, local authority, governmental authority or  a government entity, and (3) whether the supply is in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat or a Municipality under the Constitution, as clarified in the above paragraphs.

4.8 Before deciding the applicability of SI 3A of the Exemption Notification, the functions of a Panchayat under the Constitution needs to be discussed. Article 243G of the Constitution discusses the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It states, “Subject to the provisions of this Constitution the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government……. subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to…….the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule,” which contains the following twenty-nine functional items:

1

Agriculture including agricultural expansion

2

Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation

3

Animal Husbandry, Dairying and poultry

4

Fisheries

5

Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development

6

Social forestry and farm forestry

7

Small scale industries in which food processing industry is involved

8

Minor forest produce

9

Safe water for drinking

10

Khadi, village and cottage industries

11

Rural housing

12

Fuel and fodder

13

Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity

14

Road, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication

15

Education including primary and secondary schools

16

Non-conventional sources of energy

17

Technical training and vocational education

18

Adult and non-formal education

19

Public distribution system

20

Maintenance of community assets

21

Welfare of the weaker sections of the in particular of the schedule caste and schedule tribes

22

Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded

23

Family welfare

24

Women and child development

25

Markets and Fairs

26

Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries

27

Cultural activities

28

Libraries

29

Poverty Alleviation Programmes

4.9 It appears from the description of the work that it improves  the navigability  of the river­  bed and channels – an activity toward development of irrigation  and    It  is, therefore, an activity in relation to the function listed under SI  No.  5  of  the  Eleventh Schedule, as entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution of India.

4.10 Exemption under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification is, therefore, applicable to the Applicant’s supply of the above works contract service. 

Based on the above discussion, we rule as under.

 

RULING

 

The recipient, namely  Orissa  Construction  Corporation  Ltd, is a government  entity  in terms of clause 2 (zfa) of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017.

The Applicant’s supply to Orissa Construction Corporation Ltd, as mentioned in  para  4.1 above, was taxable @18% under SI No 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017  –  Integrated  Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 till 12/10/2017. The supply was taxable @ 5% under SI 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated Tax  (Rate)  dated  28/06/2017.  as  amended  by Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate)  dated  13/10/2017  with  effect  from 13/10/2017 till 24/01/2018. It has since been exempted under SI No. 3A of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017, as amended by Notification No. 2/2018 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018.

This Ruling is valid subject to the provisions under Section 103 until and unless declared void under Section 104(1) of the GST Act.

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Issues reported in filing Form GSTR 9C by the taxpayers

GST applicable on works contract of dredging a river-bed for government entity

GST applicable on works contract of dredging a river-bed for government entity

Ruling : The recipient, namely Orissa  Construction  Corporation  Ltd, is a  government  entity  in terms of clause 2 (zfa) of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017.

The Applicants supply to Orissa Construction Corporation Ltd. as mentioned  in  para  4.1 above, was taxable @18% under SI No. 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated  Tax  (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 till 12/10/2017. The supply was taxable@ 5% under SI 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated Tax  (Rate)  dated  28/06/2017.  as  amended  by Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate)  dated  13/10/2017  with  effect  from 13/10/2017 till 24/01/2018. It has since been exempted under SI No. 3A of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017, as amended by Notification No. 2/2018 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018.

1. Admissibility of the application

1.1  The Orissa Construction Corporation Limited (hereinafter the recipient) has awarded the Applicant a contract for sectioning of Makara River ( Right Drainage) and  Garanimunha  branch of Makara River (Part A, Makara Right Drainage) in Orissa. The Applicant  seeks  a ruling on whether the recipient is a government entity in terms of clause 2 (zfa)  of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated  Tax  (Rate)  dated  28/06/2017  (hereinafter  the  Exemption Notification). He further seeks a ruling on the taxability of his supply  in  terms  of  the Notification No. 08/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (hereinafter the Rate Notification) and the Exemption Notification,  as the case may  be, and as amended  from time to time. 

1.2 The question is admissible under section  97(2)(b)  of the GST  Act read with clause (xviii) of section 20 of IGST  Act, 2017.  The concerned  officer  from the Revenue  has not objected  to the admission of the application and informs that the issue raised by the Applicant is not pending or decided in any forum. 

1.3 The application is, therefore, admitted. 

2. Submissions of the Applicant

2.1 The Applicant submits that the recipient  is a government  entity,  as defined under clause  2 (zfa) of the Exemption Notification. In support of his  argument,  the  Applicant  submits  a copy of the Balance Sheet of the recipient as on 31/03/2017, and  print  out  of the  annual return in MGT-7 to the ROC. The Applicant argues that it is ascertainable from the above documents that the recipient is registered with the ROC  as a  State Government  Company,  and the State Government owns 99.98 % of the equity shares.

2.2 The Applicant submits a copy of the communication received from the Executive  Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, under his Memo No. 698 dated 16/05/2019, wherein it is stated that the work awarded to the Applicant is part of a project under the  Department  of Water Resources, Government of Odisha,  for increasing  the storage  capacity of the channel to improve irrigation of the land. 

2.3 The Applicant further submits a copy of the communication received from the Executive Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, under his Memo No. 787 dated 04/06/2019, wherein it is stated cost of material transferred for completion of the dredging work is 5%of  the  total contract value. 

2.4 The Applicant argues that the work undertaken is in relation to a function entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution of India. 

3. Submission of the concerned officer from the Revenue

3.1 The concerned officer from the Revenue has refrained from offering any comment on the merit of the issue.

4. Observations and findings of the Bench

4.1  It appears from the contract that the Applicant is required to perform desiltation  by dredging the river/nallah, including fixing of pipe lines, floaters and floating pipe lines for disposing water slurry consisting of silt, sand etc. The value of the contract includes cost of labour, materials, consumables, POL, and spare  parts and accessories  for maintenance  of  the dredgers. It also includes cost of building  islands/dykes  by  providing  geo tubes/geo fabrics and accessories or by tin sheets required for formation of bunds for dumping of the dredged materials. The contract also includes the cost of all pre and post  dredging    The contract includes the cost of clearing thickly grown water hyacinth from  canal  and  drainage channels. It is evident from  the description  of the work  that it is a composite  supply of works contract, improving and modifying the  river-bed  and  embankments.  It  further appears from the work order that 98% of the work is related to dredging. Communication received from the Executive Engineer, Drainage Division, Puri, referred to in para no. 2.4, clarifies that the cost of material transferred for completion of the dredging work is 5% of the total contract value. Dredging of channels, which includes  desiltation  of  the  channels, dumping of dredged materials and building of dykes etc., therefore, appears to be  predominantly earthwork, as understood in common parlance.

4.2 It appears from the documents mentioned in para 2.1 that the recipient is a government entity, as defined under clause 2 (zfa) of the Exemption Notification. 

4.3 It, therefore, appears that the Applicant is executing a works contract, more than 75% of which is earthwork. The recipient is a government entity and the work being executed  is part  of an irrigation project under the Department of Water  Resources,  Government  of Odisha.  It is, therefore taxable @ 5% with effect from 13/10/2017 in terms of SI No. 3(vii) of the Rate Notification, as it stands post amendment under Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated  Tax (Rate) dated 13/10/2017.

4.4 The question of applicability of the Exemption Notification comes into  play  with  effect from 25/01/2018, when it was amended adding SI 3A vide Notification No. 2/2018 Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018. SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification provides, “Composite supply of goods and services in which the value of supply of goods constitutes  not more than 25 per cent of the value of the said composite supply provided to the Central Government,  State Government or Union territory or local authority or a Governmental authority or a Government Entity by way of any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution or in relation  to  any  function  entrusted  to  a Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution.”

4.5 In its Circular No. 51/25/2018-GST dated 31/07/2018 the Central Government clarifies that the service tax exemption at serial No. 25(a) of Notification No. 25/2012 dated 20/06/2012 (hereinafter the ST Notification) has been substantially, although not in the same form, continued under GST vide SI No. 3 and 3A of the Exemption Notification. SI No. 25(a) of the ST notification under the service tax exempts “services provided to the Government, a local authority or a governmental authority by way of water supply, public health, sanitation, conservancy, solid waste management or slum improvement and up-gradation.” The Circular further explains in relation to the specific issue of ambulance service to the Government by a private service provider (PSP) that such service is a function of ‘public health’ entrusted to Municipalities under Art 243W of the Constitution, and, therefore, eligible for exemption under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification. 

4.6 The above Circular leaves no doubt that the phrase ‘in relation to any function’, as applied to SI 3 or 3A above, makes no substantial difference between SI No. 25(a) of the ST Notification and SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notification. Under the previous service tax regime, the exemption was limited to certain functions specified in SI No. 25(a) of the ST Notification, whereas, under the GST the ambit has been broadened to include any such functions that are performed by a Panchayat or a municipality under specific provisions of the Constitution. These functions are in the nature of public welfare service that the governments on their own, and sometimes through governmental authorities/entities, do provide to the citizens. When the activity is in relation to any such function, the supply to the governments or governmental authorities/entities or local authorities is exempt from paying GST under SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notification, provided it is a pure service or a composite supply where supply of goods does not constitute more than 25% of the value.

4.7 The Applicant’s eligibility under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification should, therefore, be examined from three aspects: (1) whether the supply being made is a composite supply, where supply of goods constitutes not more than 25% of the value of the composite supply,
(2) whether the recipient is government, local authority, governmental authority  or  a government entity, and (3) whether the supply is in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat or a Municipality under the Constitution, as clarified in the above paragraphs.

4.8 Before deciding the applicability of SI 3A of the Exemption Notification, the functions of a Panchayat under the Constitution needs to be discussed. Article 243G of the Constitution discusses the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It states, “Subject to the provisions of this Constitution the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government……. subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to…….the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule,” which contains the following twenty-nine functional items:

1

Agriculture including agricultural expansion

2

Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation

3

Animal Husbandry, Dairying and poultry

4

Fisheries

5

Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development

6

Social forestry and farm forestry

7

Small scale industries in which food processing industry is involved

8

Minor forest produce

9

Safe water for drinking

10

Khadi, village and cottage industries

11

Rural housing

12

Fuel and fodder

13

Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity

14

Road, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication

15

Education including primary and secondary schools

16

Non-conventional sources of energy

17

Technical training and vocational education

18

Adult and non-formal education

19

Public distribution system

20

Maintenance of community assets

21

Welfare of the weaker sections of the in particular of the schedule caste and schedule tribes

22

Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded

23

Family welfare

24

Women and child development

25

Markets and Fairs

26

Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries

27

Cultural activities

28

Libraries

29

Poverty Alleviation Programmes

4.9 It appears from the description of the work that it improves  the navigability  of the river­  bed and channels – an activity toward development of irrigation  and    It  is, therefore, an activity in relation to the function listed under  SI  No.  5  of  the  Eleventh Schedule, as entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution of India.

4.10 Exemption under SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification is, therefore, applicable to the Applicant’s supply of the above works contract service. 

Based on the above discussion, we rule as under.

RULING

The recipient, namely Orissa  Construction  Corporation  Ltd, is a  government  entity  in terms of clause 2 (zfa) of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017.

The Applicants supply to Orissa Construction Corporation Ltd. as mentioned  in  para  4.1 above, was taxable @18% under SI No. 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated  Tax  (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 till 12/10/2017. The supply was taxable@ 5% under SI 3(vii) of Notification No. 8/2017 – Integrated Tax  (Rate)  dated  28/06/2017.  as  amended  by Notification No. 39/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate)  dated  13/10/2017  with  effect  from 13/10/2017 till 24/01/2018. It has since been exempted under SI No. 3A of Notification No 9/2017 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017, as amended by Notification No. 2/2018 – Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 25/01/2018.

This Ruling is valid subject to the provisions under Section 103 until and unless declared void under Section 104(1) of the GST Act.

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EXTENSION OF DUE DATE FOR FILING ROC FORM DPT 3

EXTENSION OF DUE DATE FOR FILING ROC FORM DPT 3

The Karnataka State Chartered Accountants Association (R) (in short ‘KSCAA’) is an association of Chartered Accountants, registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, in the year 1957. KSCAA, primarily formed for the welfare of Chartered Accountants, represents before various regulatory authorities to resolve the professional problems faced by chartered accountants and business community.

The association has requested for EXTENSION OF DUE DATE FOR FILING ROC FORM DPT 3

Date: 20th June 2019

To,

Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman
Hon. Union Minister of Finance and
Corporate Affairs
Government of India
North Block
New Delhi – 110001

Hon’ble Madam,

Re: REPRESENTATION ON –

1. EXTENSION OF DUE DATE FOR FILING ROC FORM DPT 3

2. UNIFICATION OF FORM TO REPORT ALL TRANSACTIONS RELATING MSME, LOAN, ACTIVE, BENEFICIAL OWNERSHIP UNDER ONE MULTI- PURPOSE FORM

The Karnataka State Chartered Accountants Association (R) (in short ‘KSCAA’) is an association of Chartered Accountants, registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, in the year 1957. KSCAA, primarily formed for the welfare of Chartered Accountants, represents before various regulatory authorities to resolve the professional problems faced by chartered accountants and business community.

We have written to your good selves many a times populating issues and possible solutions. Herein, we are presenting before your good selves the difficulties and hardship faced by the trade, consultants and companies at large due to incessant changes and NEW FORM INTRODUCTIONS and MULTIPLE FORMS in adherence of the due dates prescribed. The ongoing accounts finalisation and statutory compliances is also having lateral bearing on the data conciseness and hence causing hardships to companies.

This Government has the primary vision and motto of “Minimum Government and Maximum Governance”;while the recent spate of rules and ROC forms released andrequirements of compliance of the below stated ROC Forms is running contrary to the spirit, intent and course of the set motto and vision – HARDSHIPS faced have been outlined below:

1. Collation of data for period of 5 years i.e., 01 April 2014 to 31 March 2019: It would take a lot of time and resource to collate the ‘outstanding money’ or ‘loan received’ data by a company for such a lengthy period.

 2. Multiple compliances and returns to be filed under Companies Act, 2013Instead of multiple returns required to be filed, all the required information can be clubbed in the annual return itself. This would reduce the burden of compliance on the companies and professionals.

3. Due dates of GSTR-9 and GSTR-9C clashing with the due date for DPT-3: Due date for filing DPT-3 is clashing with that of GSTR-9 and GSTR-9C (30 June2019). Being the first year of GSTR-9 and GSTR-9C, there is a considerable time and effort spent by the professionals and stakeholders to collate the information required to file these. There is a shortage of time for professionals and companies to file all the required information accurately.

4. Filing of income-tax returns for AY 2019-20: Being the income tax return season has just begun, there is tremendous pressure on the professionals to comply with the requirements under different laws which can adversely impact the accuracy.

Recommendation/Suggestive Steps:

All the information required by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (“MCA”) can be clubbed in a single annual return which would reduce the compliance burden on various stakeholders and professionals. This would also lead to increase in accuracy of the information provided by companies to the (“MCA”).

There is sufficient cause and need for the extension of filing of Form DPT 3 and unified reporting of other matters with a due date deadline congruent with the Annual Forms filing and nascent penalty provisions for small companies to foster friendly regime.

This write-up is on the back of representation received from trade bodies and practitioners and their request for seeking redressal to issues faced.

We would be highly thankful if you could extend the due date well in advance, which would be very useful in planning the filings for the corporates and practitioners meaningfully.

Thanking you,

Yours sincerely,

For Karnataka State Chartered Accountants Association ®

CA. Raghavendra Shetty President CA. Kumar Jigajinni Secretary CA. Vijay Sagar Shenoy Chairman, Representation Committee

CA. Deepabali Das
Chairperson, Accounting, Auditing,
Corporate & Allied Law Committee

CC To: Hon. Minister of State for Corporate Affairs, New Delhi

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You May Also Refer : Extension of due date of DPT-3 for exempt deposits not justified: MCA

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No GST leviable on extra packs of cigarettes supplied as part of promotion scheme

No GST leviable on extra packs of cigarettes supplied as part of promotion scheme for same consideration

For reasons as discussed in the body of the order, the questions are answered thus –

The Applicant is seller of Cigarettes, and intends to offer extra quantity of Cigarettes (quantity discount) in addition to normal quantity against same consideration, as a taxable supply to its Distributors from their Depot.

As per new marketing strategy devised by the Applicant to promote its brands and also to increase its turnover the Applicant proposes to distribute/promote some of their brands/products in the market, thru their Distributors. The price range of these cigarettes of a pack of 10 will be in the range of Rs. 501-to 200/-(depending upon the brand). MRP will be printed on each pack of Cigarettes. However, as marketing strategy to counter competition, instead of supplying a quantity of say 100 packs for an agreed price of say Rs.5000/-they would be supplying 110 packs of Cigarettes without recovering any additional cost from the Distributors. The Applicant would be paying GST and Compensation Cess on Rs. 50001-at applicable rate.

Question (i) :-In the above transaction, whether the extra packs of Cigarettes would again be leviable to GST?

Answer:-Answered in the negative in view of the discussions made above.

Question (ii):-If yes, the taxable value which can be attributed to such extra packs of Cigarettes for levy of GST?

Answer :-Not answered in view of answer to Question No. 1 above.

Question (iii):-Whether extra packs of Cigarettes would be considered as exempt supplies or free samples and hence attract the provisions of Section 17 (2) of the CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 42 of the CGST Rules, 2017 or clause (h) of Section 17 (5) of the CGST Act, 2017?

The extra packs of Cigarettes will not be considered as exempt supplies or free samples and hence the provisions of Section 17 (2) of the CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 42 of the CGST Rules, 2017 or clause (h) of Section 17 (5) of the CGST Act, 2017 will not be applicable.

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No GST TDS on conservancy & waste management service to municipality :AAR

No GST TDS on conservancy & waste management service to municipality :AAR

Text of Advance Ruling is given below for reference:

1. Admissibility of the Application

The Applicant is stated to be providing conservancy/solid waste management  service to  the Bally Municipal Corporation (hereinafter the BMC), which has been merged with  the  Howrah Municipal Corporation in terms of State Government Notification No. 428/MA/O/C- 4/1M-36/2014 dated 26/06/2015 of the Municipal Affairs Department.  The Applicant  claims  that their services to the BMC are exempt under SI No. 3  of  Notification  No.  12/2017  – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification No. 1136 – FT dated 28/06/2017), as amended from time to time (hereinafter collectively referred to as Exemption Notifications (Service)]. The BMC, however, is deducting TDS while paying consideration  for the above supply in terms of Notification No. 50/2018 – Central Tax dated 13/09/2018 (corresponding State Notification No. 1344 – FT dated 13/09/2018) and State  Government Order No. 6284 – F(Y) dated 28/09/2018 (hereinafter collectively referred to as TDS Notifications) and insists that the Applicant needs to get himself  registered  under  the  GST Act. The  Applicant  seeks  a ruling on whether the notifications  regarding  TDS are applicable in his case and whether he is required to obtain registration under the GST Act even if he is making exempt supplies only.

1.2 The questions raised are admissible under section 97(2)  (a),  (b)  &  (f)  of the GST  Act. The Applicant declares  that the questions  are not pending  before or have not been decided  by any authority under any proceedings of the GST Act. The concerned officer from the Revenue has not objected to the admission of the application. The application is, therefore, admitted.

2. Submissions of the Applicant

2.1 SI No. 3 of the Exemption Notifications (Service) exempts from  payment  of  GST  any “pure service” (excluding works contract service or other composite supplies  involving  supply of any goods) provided to the Central Government, State Government or Union  territory  or local authority or a Governmental authority or a Government Entity by way of any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution or in relation to any function entrusted to a Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution.  SI No. 3A of the Exemption Notification extends it to a  “composite  supply  of  goods  and services” in which the value of supply of goods constitutes not more than 25 per cent of the value of the said composite supply.

2.2. The Applicant submits that the recipient, being a municipal corporation, is a local authority. He submits a copy of the agreement with the BMC and KMDA for collection, segregation, storing, transport and disposal of municipal solid waste from the municipal area of the BMC. It is part of the Integrated Solid Waste Management Scheme sanctioned under the JnNURM and monitored by KMDA. The Applicant collects the solid waste from the households, slum area, business premises etc. and transport the waste in the vehicles provided by the BMC to the Landfill. The non-biodegradable waste is segregated and dumped in the Landfill. It is pure service to local authority and activity listed under Entry No. 6 (public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management) of  the  Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution. The supply is, therefore, about an activity entrusted to a Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution and exempted under SI No. 3 of the Exemption Notifications (Service).

2.3. The recyclable and bio-degradable waste is used to manufacture organic manure in the plant set up. The machines have been partly taken on lease from the BMC. The Applicant supplies the organic manure and solid waste scrap if any to customers. Both the goods are exempt under Notification No. 2/2017 – CT (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification No. 1126 – FT dated 28/06/2017), as amended from time to time [hereinafter collectively called Exemption Notifications (Goods)]. The Applicant argues that their entire turnover being that of exempt supplies, they are not required to  get  registration  under  the GST Act.

3. Observations and findings of the Bench

3.1. In its Circular No. 51/25/2018-GST dated 31/07/2018 the Central Government clarifies that the service tax exemption at serial No. 25(a) of Notification No. 25/2012 dated 20/06/2012 (hereinafter the ST Notification) has been substantially, although not in the same form, continued under GST vide SI No. 3 and 3A of the Exemption Notifications (Service). SI No. 25(a) of the ST notification under the service tax exempts “services provided to the Government, a local authority or a governmental authority by way of water supply, public health, sanitation, conservancy, solid waste management or slum improvement and up­ gradation.” The Circular further explains in relation to the specific issue of ambulance service to the Government by a private service provider (PSP) that such service is a function of ‘public health’ entrusted to Municipalities under Art 243W of the Constitution, and, therefore, eligible for exemption under SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notifications (Service).

3.2. The above Circular leaves no doubt that the phrase ‘in relation to  any  function’,  as  applied to SI No. 3 or 3A above, makes no substantial difference between SI No. 25(a) of the  ST Notification and SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption  Notifications  (Service).  Under  the previous service tax regime, the exemption was  limited  to  certain  functions  specified  in SI No. 25(a) of the ST Notification, whereas, under the GST the ambit has been broadened to include any such functions that are performed by a panchayat or a municipality under specific provisions of the Constitution. These functions are in the nature of public welfare service that the governments on their own, and sometimes through governmental authorities/entities, do provide to the citizens. When the activity is in relation to any such function, the supply to the governments or governmental authorities/entities or local authorities is exempt from paying GST under SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notifications (Service), provided it is either a pure service or a composite supply, where supply of goods does not constitute more than 25% of the value.

3.3. The Applicant’s eligibility under SI No. 3 or 3A of the Exemption Notifications (Service) should, therefore, be examined from three aspects: (1) whether  the supply  being  made is  pure service or a composite supply, where  supply of goods does not exceed  more than 25%  of the value of the supply, (2) whether the recipient is government, local  authority, governmental authority or a government entity, and (3) whether the supply is being made in relation to any function entrusted to a panchayat or a municipality under the Constitution, as clarified in the above paragraphs.

3.4. The recipient is a municipal corporation, which is a local authority  as  defined  under section 2(69) of the GST Act.

3.5. In the agreement referred to in para 2.2 above the Applicant is made responsible for collection, segregation, storing, transport and disposal of municipal solid waste from the municipal area of the BMC. They will organize a house-to-house collection of municipal solid waste, collect waste from slums, hotels, slaughterhouses etc. They will segregate the non­ bio-degradable and inert waste and dump it at the Landfill within the Project premise. The Applicant may build a suitable Processing  and Composting  Plant.  The  Applicant  shall bear the expenditure for maintenance of the collection  equipment  and  pay  rental  on  the equipment taken on lease from the BMC. The consideration  to be paid measures  the work done in terms of the quantity of the garbage lifted and removed. Based on the  above  document, it may, therefore, be concluded that the  Applicant’s  supply  to  BMC  is  pure service.

3.6. Furthermore, Article 243W of the Constitution that discusses the powers, authority and responsibilities of a Municipality, refers to the functions listed under the Twelfth Schedule as may be entrusted to the above authority. SI No. 6 of the Twelfth Schedule refers to public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid  waste  management.  The  Applicant’s  supply  to HMC is a function mentioned under SI No. 6 of the Twelfth Schedule .

3.7. The Applicant’s service to BMC, therefore, is exempt under SI No. 3 of the Exemption Notification.

3.8. The TDS Notifications have given effect to section 51 of the GST Act, specifying the persons under section 51(1)(d) of the Act and have  mandated  and laid down the mechanism for deduction of TDS. These notifications, therefore, are applicable only  if TDS  is deductible  on the Applicant’s supply under section 51 of the GST Act. Section 51(1) of the Act provides  that the Government may mandate inter alia a local authority to deduct TDS while making payment to a supplier of taxable goods or services or both. As the Applicant is making an exempt supply to the BMC, the provisions of section 51 and, for that matter, the TDS Notifications do not apply to his supply.

3.9. Supply of unbranded organic manure, unless packed in containers, is classifiable under HSN 3101. Municipal waste is classifiable under HSN 3825. Supplies of both of them are exempt under SI Nos. 108 and 110 of the Exemption  Notifications  (Goods),  respectively.  If the Applicant’s turnover consists entirely of exempt supplies, he is not liable to registration in terms of section 23(1)(a) of the GST Act.

Based on the above discussion, we rule as under

RULING

The Applicant’s supply to the Bally Municipal Corporation, as  described  in  para  3.5,  is exempt from the payment of GST under SI No. 3 of Notification No. 12/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification  No. 1136 –  FT dated 28/06/2017), as amended from time to time.

As the Applicant is making an exempt supply, the provisions of section  51  and,  for  that matter, Notification No. 50/2018 – Central Tax dated 13/09/2018 (corresponding State Notification No. 1344 – FT dated 13/09/2018) and State Government Order No. 6284 – F(Y) dated 28/09/2018, to the extent they mandate and deal with the mechanism of TDS, do not apply to his supply.

If the Applicant’s turnover consists  entirely of exempt  supplies,  he is not  liable to registration in terms of section 23(1)(a) of the GST Act.

This Ruling is valid subject to the provisions under  Section  103 until and  unless  declared  void under Section 104(1) of the GST Act.

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Services of renting out dwelling units for residential purposes are exempt from GST

Services of renting out dwelling units for residential purposes are exempt from GST

Ruling : The Applicant’s service of renting/leasing out the dwelling  units  for residential purpose,  as described in para no. 4.1, is exempt under SI No. 12 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification No. 1136 – FT dated 28/06/2017), as  amended  from  time to time. The Applicant is, therefore, not liable to pay tax on supply of such service.

The Complete Text of Ruling is given below:

WEST BENGAL AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING
GOODS AND SERVICES TAX
14 Beliaghata Road, Kolkata – 700015
(Constituted under section 96 of the West Bengal Goods and Services Act, 2017)

1. Admissibility of the Application

1.1  The Applicant is inter alia renting dwelling units. He seeks a ruling on whether  the  supplier  is liable to pay GST on such supply even if the recipient is using the  dwelling  unit  for  residential purpose.

1.2  Advance Ruling is admissible under Section 97(2)(d)  of the GST Act.  The Applicant  states that the question raised in the Application has neither been decided by nor  is  pending  before  any  authority under any provision  of the GST  The officer concerned  from the  Revenue  has raised  no objection to the admission of the Application.

1.3  The Application is, therefore, admitted.

2. Submissions of the Applicant

2.2  The Applicant, according to the Written Submission made at the time of hearing, has executed agreements for leasing/renting of four dwelling units it owns at  different  locations  in  Kolkata. According to the agreements, all of these units are to be used for residential purpose. Three flats have been rented to individuals and one flat (Flat No. 4H, Tower Ill, South City, Prince Anwar Shah Road, Kolkata – 700068) has been let out to M/s Larsen & Toubro Ltd. The Applicant argues that he is not liable to pay tax on leasing or renting of these dwelling units, as they are all let out for residential purpose, and services by way of renting of dwelling units for residence is exempted under SI No. 12 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification No. 1136 – FT dated 28/06/2017), as amended from time to time (hereinafter the Exemption Notification).

3. Submissions of the Revenue

3.1  The concerned officer from the Revenue states that provisions under SI No. 12 of the Exemption Notification apply to renting of dwelling units for residential  purpose.  It should not be available when the dwelling unit is rented to a commercial entity like M/s Larsen & Toubro Ltd.


4. Observation & Findings of the Authority

4.1  It appears that the dwelling units rented to individuals, as described in the relevant contracts, are meant for residential accommodation. The dwelling unit rented to M/s Larsen & Toubro Ltd is a flat in the housing complex named South City. The South City Apartment Owners’ Association certifies that the Applicant owns the flat and it is a residential flat and cannot be used for any other purpose. The said association further confirms that an employee of M/s Larsen & Toubro Ltd is staying at the flat. 

4.2  The Applicant’s service is classifiable as rental or leasing service involving own/leased residential property (SAC 997211). Applicability of SI No. 12 of the Exemption Notification depends upon whether the dwelling unit is used as residence. It appears from the documents produced that all the above dwelling units are being used for residence, irrespective of whether they are let out to individuals or a commercial entity. The Applicant’s service of renting/leasing out the dwelling units for residential purpose is, therefore, exempt under SI No. 12 of the Exemption Notification.

In view of the foregoing, we rule as under.

 

RULING

The Applicant’s service of renting/leasing out the dwelling  units  for residential purpose,  as described in para no. 4.1, is exempt under SI No. 12 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28/06/2017 (corresponding State Notification No. 1136 – FT dated 28/06/2017), as  amended  from  time to time. The Applicant is, therefore, not liable to pay tax on supply of such service.

This Ruling is valid subject to the provisions under Section 103(2) until and  unless  declared  void under Section 104(1) of the GST Act.

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Ball pens & medical gifts given to doctors by Pharma Co with its logo are not freebies: ITAT

Ball pens & medical gifts given to doctors by Pharma Co with its logo are not freebies: ITAT

Order of ITAT is given below for referance:

This appeal by assessee has been directed against the Order of the Ld. CIT(A)-1, New Delhi, Dated 19.12.2018, for the A.Y. 2015-2016, challenging the addition of Rs. 57,27,412/- under section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

2. Briefly the facts of the case are that assessee is a resident Company and filed return of income declaring income of Rs.2,48,070/-. The assessee-company    was engaged    in    the    business    of    Trading/Marketing    of medicines during the year. During the year under consideration, the assessee company has claimed expenditure   of   Rs.54,27,412/-   on   account   of   business promotion expenses. The assessee company was asked to furnish the details of expenditure claimed as business promotion expenses. The assessee company explained that it   is   engaged   in   the   business   of   trading/marketing   of medicines and in the era of acute competition of present times and to survive and run  its business viably among  the national/multinational  brands  like  Cipla,  Ranbaxy  etc.,  the assessee company has to incur massive expenditure on sales promotions. Sales promotion includes continuous and constant   meetings/ seminars/ knowledge dissemination with doctors/ medical  practitioners/ medical stores  in  the  areas  of operation of the company. Continuous  sales promotion campaigns like free medical camps/blood donations camps/free    check-up camp with refreshment and free distribution of medicines/kits  etc., The A.O. did  not  found explanation  of  assessee  to  be  satisfactory  as  the  assessee’s claim of deduction of expenditure incurred to provide freebees to Medical Practitioners is against the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002. Hence, the same is not allowable under Section 37(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961. The A.O. also referred to  CBDT  Circular No.5/2012, Dated 01.08.2012 for inadmissibility of expenses incurred in providing freebees to medical practitioners by pharmaceutical and allied Health Sector Industry. The text of the same is reproduced in the assessment order which prohibits Medical Practitioners and their professional associations from taking any Gift, Travel facility, Hospitality, Cash or monetary grant from the pharmaceutical and allied Health Sector Industries, in which, A.O. was also directed to examine the same issue and take appropriate action. Further, explanation of assessee was called for with reference to the above Board Circular. The assessee, in response thereto, submitted that assessee arranges  seminars,  discussion panel of eminent doctors and inviting of other doctors to participate in seminars on a topic related to  therapeutic area and blood donation camps and the assessee makes an endeavour to create awareness amongst certain class of key doctors about the product of the assessee company and its new developments in the area of medicine in order to provide correct diagnosis and treatment of the patients. The said activities by the assessee company are to make aware of the products of the assessee company to the knowledge of the Doctors and to bring its medicines to the market. Since the pharmaceutical companies make aware of such kind of products/medicines    to    the    notice    of    the    Doctors    by conducting seminars as mentioned hereinabove by incurring certain expenditure, the said expenditure is definitely in the nature of sales and business promotion and pleaded that the same has to be allowed.

2.1. With respect to gift articles like diaries, pen sets, calendars, paper weights, injection boxes etc., embossed with bold logo of its brand name and the product, the assessee company submitted that all these gift articles are very cheap and low cost articles which bears the name of assessee company and it is purely for the promotion of its product and brand name etc. and these articles cannot be reckoned as freebies given to the Doctors. It was further submitted that since the assessee company is engaged in trading and marketing or even manufacturing of pharmaceuticals products, it can promote its sale  and  brand only by arranging seminars, conferences and thereby creating    awareness/update    knowledge    with    the    latest development of the medicines amongst doctors about the new research in the medical field and therapeutic areas around the world and this exercise would help for correct diagnosis and treatment of the patients. Therefore, the assessee company pleaded that the said expenditure be allowed as business expenditure. In support of its contention, the assessee company relied upon the Order of the ITAT, Mumbai Bench in the case of DCIT-8(2), Mumbai vs. PHL Pharma (P.) Ltd., [2017] 163 ITD 10 (Mumbai- Tribu.) in which the Tribunal has upheld the Order of the Ld. CIT(A) in deleting the similar disallowance. The A.O. however, did not accept the contention of assessee and submitted that Board Circular is in line with Section 37(1) of the I.T. Act, 1961. The A.O. relied upon Judgment of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kap Scan and Diagnostic Centre (P.) Ltd., [2012] 344 ITR 476 (P & H) in which it was held that “commission paid to Doctors for referring patients is not an allowable deduction.” The   A.O.   also  noted  that   the   assessee’s   act   of   incurring expenditure or providing freebies is an offence. The A.O, therefore, following the Board Circular above, rejected the claim of assessee and disallowed the business promotion expenses of Rs.54,27,412/- under section  37 of the I.T. Act, 1961.

3. The assessee challenged the addition before  the Ld. CIT(A). The Ld. CIT(A) on the same reasoning as given by the A.O. and following the decision of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kap Scan and Diagnostic Centre (P.) Ltd., (supra) and Order of ITAT, Delhi Bench in the case of DCIT vs. OCHOA Laboratories Ltd., [2017] 85 taxmann.com 168 (Delhi.Tribu.) confirmed the addition and dismissed the appeal of assessee.

4. Aggrieved by the Order of the Ld. CIT(A), the assessee is in appeal before the Tribunal. Learned Counsel for the Assessee reiterated the submissions made before the authorities below and submitted a detailed chart of  business promotion expenses as per the ledger account and submitted that the business promotion expenses are not in the nature of gift or freebies as noted by the authorities below. The details are in the nature of expenses incurred for medical camps held for business purposes. Ball pens distributed with logo of the assessee, organizing camps, small snacks provided at the camps and relates expenses which were not in the nature of gifts provided to the professional Doctors or Medical Practitioners etc. Therefore, the very basis of the authorities below was wrong in disallowing the expenditure. He has referred to various replies filed before the authorities below in which assessee has specifically pleaded that it is engaged in the business of trading/marketing  of  medicines  and  these  expenses  were incurred only for business promotion. He has submitted that   CBDT   Circular   No.5/12   dated   01.08.2012   is   not applicable to Pharma Companies. He has submitted that the said Circular have been considered by the ITAT, Mumbai Bench in the case of DCIT-8(2), Mumbai vs. PHL Pharma (P.) Ltd., (supra), in which the assessee company was a Pharmaceutical Company engaged in business of providing Pharma Marketing, Consultancy and Detailing services to develop mass market for pharma products. In this case, the assessee claimed advertisement and sales promotion expenses and customer related management expenses, key accounting management expenses, gift articles and cost on sample. The Tribunal, in this case noted that Medical Council of India has no jurisdiction to pass any Order or Regulation against any Hospital or any Health Care Centre in the aforesaid Circular. The Medical Council Regulation is applicable to Medical Practitioners, then, it cannot be made applicable to Pharma or allied Health Care Companies. Therefore, Section 37(1) of the I.T. Act, would not be applicable in such cases. The Tribunal, ultimately has held as under :

“Expenditure incurred by assessee Pharma. Company for customer relationship management, key account management, gift articles, free medicine sample, advertisement article sales promotion could not be considered as freebies given to doctors, they were purely for brand recognition; allowable as business expenditure and were not impaired by Explanation 1 to section 37(1).”

4.1. Learned Counsel for the Assessee submitted that authorities below have relied upon decision of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kap  Scan and Diagnostic Centre (P.) Ltd., (supra) in which “commission was paid by Diagnostic Centre to private Doctors for referring patients for diagnosis was not allowed as business expenses”. In the case of DCIT vs. OCHOA Laboratories Ltd., [2017] 85 taxmann.com 168 (Delhi-Tribu.) it was held that “providing free air travel, stay and food in hotels, local car conveyance, etc., to doctors for prescribing medicines of assessee-pharma company being in contravention of public policy, the amount was correctly disallowed with reference to Explanation to section 37(1) of the I.T. Act, 1961.” Learned Counsel for the Assessee, therefore, submitted that both these decisions are distinguishable on facts. He has, therefore, submitted that addition may be deleted.

5. On the other hand, Ld. D.R. relied upon the Orders of the authorities below.

6. We have considered the rival submissions and perused the material available on record. The authorities below have rejected the claim of assessee of claiming expenses on account of business promotion. The assessee is admittedly engaged in the business of trading and marketing of medicines. During the year under consideration, the assessee claimed that due to competition in the Pharma Industry, the assessee company shall have to incur expenditure on business promotion which includes constant meetings/seminars/knowledge   dissemination   with   doctors/ medical practitioners/medical stores  in  the  areas  of  operation of the company. The assessee company in this way organized medical  camps/blood  donations  camps/free  check-up  camp etc., and on such occasion, incurred expenditure including distribution  of  medicines  /kits  etc.,  with  logo  of  assessee company and refreshment and dinner etc. The list of expenditure as per ledger account is filed which shows that business promotion expenses have been incurred mostly on medical camps organized with tea and snacks, ball pens, purchased for distribution to Doctors and Hospitals, with logo of the assessee company, organizing cardiac camps, Doctors meetings for various products for awareness of their product with refreshment and dinners etc., The authorities below have not commented upon these expenditure incurred by the assessee company for business promotion. The assessee company in this way made aware the Professionals of the product in which assessee company was giving small gifts having logo and brand name of the assessee company and product name have been mentioned. Copies of the bills and certificates from the concerned persons are filed which supports the explanation of assessee company that assessee company did not provide any gifts to the professionals for referring any patient or customer. The expenditure incurred by assessee company are thus not in the nature of freebies provided to any of the professionals. The activity of the assessee company for incurring the sale promotion expenses are to make the persons connected with business of the assessee company, aware of its product and research work carried out by the company for bringing the medicine in the market and its results are based on several efforts made by the assessee company. Since the assessee company make aware of such kind of product to the key persons in the market, then only it can successfully launch its product/ medicine. Thus, these expenditure were purely incurred for business promotion of the assessee company. The authorities below, rejected the claim of assessee company considering that assessee company has provided freebies to the Medical Practitioners and referred to the provisions contained under Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 and also referred  to   CBDT  Circular   No.5/2012,   Dated  01.08.2012. The said Circular have been considered by the ITAT, Mumbai Bench in the case of DCIT-8(2), Mumbai vs. PHL Pharma (P.) Ltd., (supra), in which it was clearly held that said Regulations and Board Circular are not applicable to Pharma and allied Health Care  Companies.  Therefore, there is no question of application of Section 37(1) of the I.T. Act. The issue is, therefore, covered in favour of the assessee by the Order of ITAT, Mumbai Bench, in the case of DCIT-8(2), Mumbai vs. PHL Pharma (P.) Ltd., (supra). The authorities below have also referred to decision of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kap Scan and Diagnostic Centre (P.) Ltd., (supra) and Order of ITAT Delhi Bench in the case of DCIT vs. OCHOA Laboratories Ltd., (supra), which are clearly distinguishable on facts and would not be applicable to the facts and circumstances of the case. Considering the nature of the business promotion expenses incurred by the assessee company in the light of Order of ITAT, Mumbai Bench, in the case of DCIT-8(2), Mumbai vs. PHL Pharma (P.) Ltd., (supra), we are of the view that whatever expenses incurred by the assessee company are only on account of business promotion expenses which are allowable under the provisions of the I.T. Act. The authorities below have failed to provide as to what offence have been committed by the assessee company on incurring such expenses under any Law. Therefore, there is no question of applying Explanation to Section 37(1) of the I.T. Act, 1961, against the assessee company. We, accordingly, set aside the Orders of the authorities below and delete the entire addition.

7. In the result, appeal of Assessee allowed

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