Wednesday, March 31, 2021

DGFT enables Online Filing of requests for Closure of Advance Authorizations

DGFT enables Online Filing of requests for Closure of Advance Authorizations

Government of India
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Department of Commerce
Directorate General of Foreign Trade
Udyog Bhawan, New Delhi-110011

Dated: 30 March, 2021

Trade Notice No. 49/2020-21

To,

1. All Advance Authorization Holders concerned
2. Members of Trade and trade Associations
3. Regional Authorities (RAs) of DGFT
4. Other stakeholders of DGFT

Subject: Online Filing of requests for Closure of Advance Authorizations -reg

DGFT has revamped its IT systems to provide a paperless, contact-less, electronic interface to the exporters/importers and other stakeholders of DGFT. The new IT System amongst other improvements include process for managing the entire lifecycle of Advance Authorizations including its issuance, amendment and closure.

2. In this regard it is hereby informed that Authorisation Holders are required to make online submissions for fulfilment of Export Obligation to the DGFT Regional Authority(RA) as per Para 4.46 of Hand Book of Procedures 2015-20. The given facility may be utilized for Redemption, Surrender, Duty Paid Regularization, Bond Waiver or the Clubbing of Advance Authorizations. Authorization Holder can utilize the given facility by navigating online to DGFT Website -> Services -> Advance Authorization/DFIA -> Closure of Advance Authorization.

3. The related documents shall be available for the perusal of the concerned applicant exporter under the DGFT Website -> My Dashboard -> Repositories -> Bills Repositories. The EDI Shipping Bills/Bill of Entries are electronically and automatically fetched from the DGFT-Customs Electronic interface. e-BRCs as uploaded by the banks are also automatically available under the Bills Repositories.

4. The other related documents such as Non-EDI Shipping Bills, Non-EDI Bill of Entries, GST invoices, CA/CE/CS Certificates, TR Challans, BG/LUT which are not automatically available required to be uploaded by the applicants to their respective online repositories prior to preparing the online closure application.

5. The facility for on-boarding of certifying authorities such as CA/CE/CS and for them to digitally sign and submit certificates against the Exporter’s IEC electronically has also been provided. However, the Authorisation Holder has option to upload the CA/CE/CS Certificate directly to the specific Repository.

6. The Authorization holder may create a licence closure application by linking to the documents as already added to the Repositories. While the Shipping Bills/Bill of Entries would be automatically linked to the closure application, the other details as required, may be added to complete the application prior to submission. In case complete details of Shipping Bills/Bill of Entries are not visible in the application, applicant may navigate online to DGFT Website-> My Dashboard-> Repositories-> Bills Repositories-> Select type of bill and proceed with following actions:

i. add non-EDI shipping bills manually using “Add Non-EDI Shipping Bills” tab.
ii. Wherever required, the applicant may search the EDI shipping bill in repository and update the export serial number under part E section in respective Shipping Bill to ensure that the Advance Authorization export item(s) to the shipping bill item(s) linkage is correlated correctly.
iii. If Bill of Entry data is not automatically available, fetch Bill of Entry for EDI ports using “Get Bill of Entry from Customs” feature.
iv. add non-EDI Bill of Entries manually using “Add Details” tab.
v. Wherever required, the applicant may search the EDI Bill of Entry in repository and update the serial number in the respective Bill of Entry to ensure that the Advance Authorization input item(s) to the Bill of Entry item(s) linkage is correlated correctly.

7. It may be noted that the following documents are required to be submitted physically to the Receipts counter at the RA –

i. TR Challan
ii. Bank Guarantee / Letter of Undertaking /Corporate Guarantee.

8. Ordinarily the RA would not call for any physical submission of the closure application or the supporting documents. However, in cases of genuine difficulty, physical documents can be submitted to RA with the approval of the Head of the RA. An online application with or without supporting documents is still required to be filed for such applications. Any subsequent communication, clariication, deficiency letter or redemption, needs to be issued through the online module.

9. Any physical documents submitted need to be recorded as a correspondence receipt in the online system by the RA and linked to the related online application.

10. For any help and guidance on this new process, the Help manual & FAQs may be accessed on the DGFT Website ->Learn -> ‘Application Help & FAQs’. For any further assistance, the following channels may be used –

i. Raise a service request/suggestion ticket through the DGFT Helpdesk service link under Services → ‘Complaints & Suggestions’
ii. Call the DGFT toll-free Helpline number
iii. Send an email to dgftedi@gov.in

11. All RAs of DGFT are requested to sensitize and handhold the trade community with regard to the above mentioned new process.

12. This issues with the approval of the Competent Authority.

Vijay Kumar
Additional Director General of Foreign Trade

(Issued from File No.: 01/94/180/018/AM21/PC-4)



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CBIC extends exemption from IGST & compensation cess to EOUs on imports

CBIC extends exemption from IGST & compensation cess to EOUs on imports

[TO BE PUBLISHED IN PART II, SECTION 3, SUB-SECTION (i) OF THE GAZETTE OF INDIA, EXTRAORDINARY]

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
MINISTRY OF FINANCE
DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE
(CENTRAL BOARD OF INDIRECT TAXES AND CUSTOMS)

Notification No. 19/2021-Customs

New Delhi, the 30th March, 2021

G.S.R. (E).— In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (1) of section 25 of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), the Central Government, being satisfied that it is necessary in the public interest so to do, hereby makes the following further amendments in the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) No. 52/2003-Customs, dated the 31st March, 2003, published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, vide number G.S.R. 274 (E), dated the 31st March, 2003, namely:-

In the said notification, in the opening paragraph, in the proviso, for the figures, letters and words “1st day of April, 2021”, the figures, letters and words “1st day of April, 2022” shall be substituted.

[F.No. DGEP/SEZ/09/2017(Pt-2)]

(Rajeev Ranjan)
Under Secretary to the Government of India

Note:-The principal notification No. 52/2003-Customs, dated the 31st March, 2003 was published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, vide number G.S.R. 274 (E), dated the 31st March, 2003 and last amended by notification No. 16/2020-Customs, dated the 24th March, 2020, published vide number G.S.R 213(E), dated the 24th March, 2020.



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DGFT Extends Foreign trade policy till 30th September 2021

DGFT Extends Foreign trade policy till 30th September 2021

(To be published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary)

(Part-II, Section – 3, Sub-Section(II))

Government of India
Ministry of Commerce & Industry
Department of Commerce
Directorate General of Foreign Trade
New Delhi

Notification No. 60/2015-2020
Dated: 31st March, 2021

S.O. (E) In exercise of powers conferred by Section 5 of the Foreign Trade (Development & Regulation) Act, 1992 read with paragraph 1.02 of the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-2020, as amended, the Central Government hereby makes, with immediate effect, the following amendments in the FTP 2015-2020:

1. In para 1.01, the phrase ‘shall remain in force upto 31st March, 2021 unless otherwise specified’ is substituted by the phrase ‘shall remain in force upto 30th September, 2021 unless otherwise specified.’

2. In para 4.14, the date ‘31.03.2021’ as appearing in the last line is substituted by ‘30.09.2021’.

3. In para 5.01 (a), the date ‘31.03.2021’ as appearing in the second sentence is substituted by ‘30.09.2021’.

4. In para 6.0l(d) (ii), the date ‘31.03.2021’ as appearing in the last line is substituted by ‘30.09.2021’.

Effect of this Notification: The existing Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020 which is valid upto 31.03.2021 is extended upto 30.09.2021.

(Amit Yadav)

Director General of Foreign Trade
Ex-officio Addi. Secretary to the Govt. of India
Email: dgft@nic.in

(Issued from file no. 01/75/171/00001/AM20/FTPCell(Pt.lV))



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List of HSN Code/Service Accounting Code Updated till 31st March 2021

List of HSN Code/Service Accounting Code Updated till 31st March 2021

The Central Broad of Indirect Tax and Custom (CBIC) mandates HSN Code/SAC for GST Taxpayer.

Requirement of HSN/Service Accounting Code for Goods and Services on B2B Tax Invoices is mandatory w.e.f 01/04/21.

Turnover more than 5 crore in preceding FY6 Digits HSN Code

Turnover upto 5 crore in preceding FY4 Digits HSN Code

Link to access HSN Code/Service Accounting Code:

Goods, Services, Services (Exempt)



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Due Date of linking of Aadhaar number with PAN extended to 30th June 2021

Due Date of linking of Aadhaar number with PAN extended to 30th June 2021

Central Government has extended the last date for linking of Aadhaar number with PAN from 31st March 2021 to 30th June 2021, in view of the difficulties arising out of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Below is the Tweet shared by Income Tax Department:

The due date of linking Aadhar and PAN was 31st March 2021 and Income Tax Portal was not properly working.

Penalty for Non-Linking of Aadhar & PAN

  • The Due Date for linking Aadhar and Income Tax PAN is 31st March 2021.
  • In case of non-linking, your PAN Card would become in-operative.
  • In case of Non-Linking, you may be Charged a Fine of Rs. 10,000 as per Section 272B of the Income Tax Act.

6 CHANGES THAT WILL BE APPLICABLE IN INCOME TAX FROM 1ST APRIL 2021



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Tax demand order alleging e-way bill reuse quashed by HC and termed it as perverse and erroneous

Tax demand order alleging e-way bill reuse quashed by HC and termed it as perverse and erroneous

The Hon’ble Allahabad High Court in M/s. Anandeshwar Traders v. State of UP [Writ Tax No. 503 of 2020 decided on January 18, 2021] held that the order demanding tax and penalty passed by Revenue under Section 129(3) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017(“CGST Act”) is contrary to the provisions of the law and is perverse and erroneous on the basis that the Revenue had not recorded any reason to establish evasion of tax or attempt to evade tax or reuse of the e-way bill.

Facts:-

M/s. Anandeshwar Traders (“the Petitioner”) is a trader is Pan Masala and other goods. The Petitioner claimed to have sold disputed goods to a dealer against its tax invoices dated November 24, 2019. Two e-way bills were also prepared on November 24, 2019 and Bilty of the carrier were also prepared for transportation of those goods.

The goods in question along with the two tax invoices, e-way bills and two bilty were found with the goods on November 28, 2019 when the same were intercepted by the revenue authorities. At the stage of seizure i.e., when the order under Section 129(1) of the CGST Act was passed alleging the reuse of the aforesaid e-way bills.

However, the Assistant Commissioner in its order dated December 3, 2019 imposed the tax and penalty amounting to Rs. 29,76,110/- and no findings were recorded to that effect.

Aggrieved by the above order, the Petitioner appealed against the same and the same was dismissed vide order dated June 22, 2020 by Additional Commissioner Grade-2 (Appeal)-5, Commercial Tax, Kanpur (“Appeal authority”).

It is to be noted that Appeal authority relied on some additional evidence produced by revenue authority and further, relied on Rule 138(9) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 (“CGST Rules”), to state that since the goods were not being transported immediately upon preparation of the e-way bills on November 24, 2019 the same should have been cancelled. It has been inferred that the said e-way bills had been reused.

A writ petition was filed by the Petitioner against the order dated December 3, 2019 in the High Court.

Petitioner’s Contention:-

  • That Rule 138(9) of the CGST Rules does not provide compulsory cancellation of e-way bills by a dealer, in case, the goods are not transported within 24 hours of its generation. Further, it does not lead to the second use of the e-way bills merely because transportation of the goods did not commence for four days thereafter.
  • That as per Rule 112 of the CGST Rules and the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Mohinder Singh Gill & Anr. v. The Chief Election Commissioner, New Delhi & Ors.[ AIR 1978 SC 851] the right to lead additional evidence at the stage of appeal has been granted to the appellant only. Therefore, the Appeal authority has wrongly allowed the application of the revenue authority.

Respondent’s Contention:-

  • That if the Petitioner had not transported the goods as disclosed on the e-way bills, the Petitioner should have acted in accordance with law and cancelled the same under Rule 138(9) of the CGST Rules.
  • That as per the evidence given to the Appeal Authority, the goods have been transported twice under the same e-way bill.

Held:-

The Hon’ble Allahabad High Court in Writ Tax No. 503 of 2020 decided on January 18, 2021 held as under:

  • Rule 138(9) of the CGST Rules, does not prescribe that the dealer must necessarily cancel the e-way bill if no transportation of the goods is made within 24 hours of its generation. If such cancellation does not take place, then there are no consequences. On the contrary, the stated Rule permits a dealer to cancel the e-way bill only if the transportation does not take place and its the dealer who chooses to cancel such e-way bill within 24 hours of its generation.
  • Observed that, since the Petitioner had pleaded a negative fact, the initial onus was on the revenue authority to lead positive evidence to establish that the goods had been transported on an earlier occasion.
  • Noted that neither any inquiry appears to have been made at that stage from the purchasing dealer or any toll plaza or other source, nor the Petitioner was confronted with any adverse material as may have shifted the onus on the Petitioner to establish non-transportation of goods on an earlier occasion. The presumption could not be drawn on the basis of the existence of the e-way bills when there did not exist evidence of actual transaction performed and there is no statutory presumption available. Also, there is no finding of the assessing authority to that effect. Mere assertion made at the end of the seizure order that it was clearly established that the Petitioner had made double use of the e-way bills is merely a conclusion drawn bereft of material on record. It is the reason based on facts and evidence found by the assessing authority that has to be examined to test the correctness of the order and not the conclusions, recorded without any material on record.
  • Further stated that, the Appeal authority had not recorded any reason to establish evasion of tax or attempt to evade tax or even reuse of the documents by the Petitioner. He simply rejected the explanation furnished by the Petitioner without recording any reason and consequently imposed tax and penalty in the order dated December 3, 2019 passed under Section 129(3) of the CGST Act.
  • Held that, the order dated December 3, 2019 is found to be pervasive and erroneous in nature and is set aside. Any amount that may have been deposited by the Petitioner, may be returned to it, in accordance with law.

Relevant Provisions:-

Section 129(3) of the CGST Act:

“(3) The proper officer detaining or seizing goods or conveyances shall issue a notice specifying the tax and penalty payable and thereafter, pass an order for payment of tax and penalty under clause (a) or clause (b) or clause (c).”

Rule 138(9) of the CGST Rules:

“(9) Where an e-way bill has been generated under this rule, but goods are either not transported or are not transported as per the details furnished in the e-way bill, the e-way bill may be cancelled electronically on the common portal within twenty four hours of generation of the e-way bill:

Provided that an e-way bill cannot be cancelled if it has been verified in transit in accordance with the provisions of rule 138B:

Provided further that the unique number generated under sub-rule (1) shall be valid for a period of fifteen days for updation of Part B of FORM GST EWB-01.”

DISCLAIMER: The views expressed are strictly of the author and A2Z Taxcorp LLP. The contents of this article are solely for informational purpose. It does not constitute professional advice or recommendation of firm. Neither the author nor firm and its affiliates accepts any liabilities for any loss or damage of any kind arising out of any information in this article nor for any actions taken in reliance thereon.



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Income Tax Portal Down on Last date of Filling ITR For FY 2019-20

Income Tax Portal Down on Last date of Filling ITR For FY 2019-20

31st of March 2021 is the Last date of Filling Belated or Revised Income Tax Return [ITR] For FY 2019-20 and Income Tax Portal is not properly working.

Taxpayers are facing huge trouble because of this.

This year has seen an increase in the revision of a large number of ITRs. The reason for the same is the High-Value Transaction Campaign of the Income Tax Department.

High-Value transactions are transactions of high monetary value. They are reported to Income Tax Department when Form 61A or commonly called Statement of Financial Transaction is filed by various entities like banks, post offices, companies, etc.

Why these kinds of Transactions are reported?

The transactions that are not in line with the profile of taxpayers are required to be reported.

  • Non-Filing of ITR: You have a transaction on which TDS has been deducted, but ITR has not been filed. Or you are having potential Tax Liability is you have not filed ITR.
  • Tax Evasion: There is a transaction on which the taxpayer is having potential Tax Liability and that transaction is not disclosed in ITR.

HOW TO GIVE REPLY OF INTIMATION OF HIGH-VALUE INFORMATION ON INCOME TAX COMPLIANCE PORTAL

Late Fees on Non-Filing of ITR

  • For Income Less than Rs. 500000 – Rs. 1000
  • Others – Rs. 10000

However, No Late fees is applicable in case of Revision of ITR.



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Rules for interpreting HSN Code

Rules for interpreting HSN Code

THE GENERAL RULES FOR THE INTERPRETATION OF IMPORT TARIFF

Classification of goods in this Schedule shall be governed by the following principles:

1. The titles of Sections, Chapters and sub-chapters are provided for ease of reference only; for legal purposes, classification shall be determined according to the terms of the headings and any relative Section or Chapter Notes and, provided such headings or Notes do not otherwise require, according to the following provisions:

2. (a) Any reference in a heading to an article shall be taken to include a reference to that article incomplete or unfinished, provided that, as presented, the incomplete or unfinished articles has the essential character of the complete or finished article. It shall also be taken to include a reference to that article complete or finished (or falling to be classified as complete or finished by virtue of this rule), presented unassembled or disassembled.

(b) Any reference in a heading to a material or substance shall be taken to include a reference to mixtures or combinations of that material or substance with other materials or substances. Any reference to goods of a given material or substance shall be taken to include a reference to goods consisting wholly or partly of such material or substance. The classification of goods consisting of more than one material or substance shall be according to the principles of rule 3.

3. When by application of rule 2(b) or for any other reason, goods are, prima facie, classifiable under two or more headings, classification shall be effected as follows:

(a) The heading which provides the most specific description shall be preferred to headings providing a more general description. However, when two or more headings each refer to part only of the materials or substances contained in mixed or composite goods or to part only of the items in a set put up for retail sale, those headings are to be regarded as equally specific in relation to those goods, even if one of them gives a more complete or precise description of the goods.

(b) Mixtures, composite goods consisting of different materials or made up of different components, and goods put up in sets for retail sale, which cannot be classified by reference to (a), shall be classified as if they consisted of the material or component which gives them their essential character, in so far as this criterion is applicable.

(c) When goods cannot be classified by reference to (a) or (b), they shall be classified under the heading which occurs last in numerical order among those which equally merit consideration.

4. Goods which cannot be classified in accordance with the above rules shall be classified under the heading appropriate to the goods to which they are most akin.

5. In addition to the foregoing provisions, the following rules shall apply in respect of the goods referred to therein:

(a) Camera cases, musical instrument cases, gun cases, drawing instrument cases, necklace cases and similar containers, specially shaped or fitted to contain a specific article or set of articles, suitable for long-term use and presented with the articles for which they are intended, shall be classified with such articles when of a kind normally sold therewith. This rule does not, however, apply to containers which give the whole its essential character;

(b) Subject to the provisions of (a) above, packing materials and packing containers presented with the goods therein shall be classified with the goods if they are of a kind normally used for packing such goods. However, this provisions does not apply when such packing materials or packing containers are clearly suitable for repetitive use.

6. For legal purposes, the classification of goods in the sub-headings of a heading shall be determined according to the terms of those sub headings and any related sub headings Notes and, mutatis mutandis, to the above rules, on the understanding that only sub headings at the same level are comparable. For the purposes of this rule the relative Section and Chapter Notes also apply, unless the context otherwise requires.

THE GENERAL EXPLANATORY NOTES TO IMPORT TARIFF

1. Where in column (2) of this Schedule, the description of an article or group of articles under a heading is preceded by “-”, the said article or group of articles shall be taken to be a sub-classification of the article or group of articles covered by the said heading. Where, however, the description of an article or group of articles is preceded by “- -”, the said article or group of articles shall be taken to be a sub-classification of the immediately preceding description of the article or group of articles which has “-”. where the description of an article or group of articles is proceded by “—” or “—-“, the said article or group of articles shall be taken to be a sub- classification of the immediately preceding description of the article or group of articles which has “-” or “–“.

2. The abbreviation “%” in any column of this Schedule in relation to the rate of duty indicates that duty on the goods to which the entry relates shall be charged on the basis of the value of the goods as defined in section 14 of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), the duty being equal to such percentage of the value as is indicated in that column.

3. In any entry, if no rate of duty is shown in column (5), the rate shown under column (4) shall be applicable.

ADDITIONAL NOTES

In this Schedule,—

(1) (a) “heading”, in respect of goods, means a description in list of tariff provisions accompanied by a four-digit number and includes all sub-headings of tariff items the first four-digits of which correspond to that number;

(b) “sub-heading”, in respect of goods, means a description in the list of tariff provisions accompanied by a six-digit number and includes all tariff items the first six-digits of which correspond to that number;

(c) “tariff item” means a description of goods in the list of tariff provisions accompanying eight-digit number and the rate of customs duty;

(2) the list of tariff provisions is divided into Sections, Chapters and Sub-Chapters;

(3) in column (3), the standard unit of quantity is specified for each tariff item to facilitate the collection, comparison and analysis of trade statistics.



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ICSI Extends Time For Obtaining the Mandatory CPE Credits

ICSI Extends Time For Obtaining the Mandatory CPE Credits

THE INSTITUTE OF COMPANY SECRETARIES OF INDIA

March 27, 2021

EXTENSION OF TIME FOR OBTAINING THE MANDATORY CPE CREDITS

Dear Professional Colleague,

The ICSI has issued lCSl (Continuous Professional Education) Guidetines, 2019 effective from 1st Aprit, 2020 with a view to enabte the members to maintain the optimum level of professional competence and to ensure high quatity and standards in the professional services rendered by them. According to these Guidelines, it is mandatory for all members of the Institute, except those specified in para 5.1 to secure 20 CPE Credits in a year through structured and unstructured learning program.

Considering the difficulties posed by the pandemic and in order to facilitate the members in fulfilling the mandatory requirement of CPE Credits for the year commencing 1st Aprit, 2020 to 31st March, 2021, the Council of the lnstitute has extended the tast date for obtaining the mandatory CPE credits by the members ti[[ June 30,2021.

The Members may ptease note that no further extension for obtaining CPE Credits for the F.Y 2020-21 witt be granted.

Regards,

(CS Asish Mohan)
Secretary



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E-Way Bill Limit increased to Rs 100000 in State of Rajasthan

E-Way Bill Limit increased to Rs 100000 in State of Rajasthan

GOVERNMENT OF RAJASTHAN
COMMERCIAL TAX DEPARTMENT

NOTIFICATION

Jaipur, dated: March 30, 2021

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (d) of sub-rule (14) of rule 138 of the Rajasthan Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017, hereinafter referred to as the “said rules”, I, Abhishek Bhagotia, Chief Commissioner, State Tax, Rajasthan, after consultation with the Chief Commissioner of Central Tax, Jaipur Zone, hereby makes the following amendment in this department’s notification No. F.17(131) ACCT/GST/2017/3743, dated the 6th August, 2018, namely:-

i. In the table, after serial number 1 and the entries thereto, the following serial number and entries thereto shall be inserted, namely :-

2. Where the movement commences and terminate within the State of Rajasthan without crossing the boundaries of the State of Rajasthan Any Goods except all type of Tobacco and its Products i.e. Chewing Tobacco, Khaini, Cigarettes, Bidi etc. (All goods of Chapter 24) and Pan Masala (Tariff heading 2106) Not exceeding Rs. 1 Lakh.

ii. In the said notification, after the table, the following proviso shall be inserted, namely :-

“Provided that documents such as tax invoice, bill of supply, voucher, delivery challan or bill of entry, as the case may be, shall be required to be carried even in respect of consignments exempted from intra-State e-way Bill.”

2. This notification shall come into force with effect from 1st Day of April, 2021.

[F.17(131-Pt-II)ACCT/GST/2017/6672]

(Abhishek Bhagotia)
Chief Commissioner of State Tax
Rajasthan, Jaipur



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Bank of Maharashtra 150 Vacancies of Generalist Officers for CA/ICWA/CFA

Bank of Maharashtra 150 Vacancies of Generalist Officers for CA/ICWA/CFA

Human Resources Management Department

AX1/ ST/RP/Generalist Officer Scale-II/Project II/2020-21                          Date: 20.03.2021

RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION

RECRUITMENT OF GENERALIST OFFICERS IN SCALE II PROJECT 2021-22

BANK OF MAHARASHTRA, leading listed Public Sector Bank with Head Office in Pune and all India network of branches invites online application from candidates for recruitment of Generalist Officers in Scale II. Bank’s success depends upon dedicated and skilled employees. Working in any aspect of banking can not only be very rewarding and fulfilling but also provide interesting new challenges every day. There is always a need for banks to recruit trained, talented, motivated, resourceful and customer-oriented manpower on continuous basis to maintain requisite staff strength.

Bank of Maharashtra Recruitment 2021
Conducting Body Bank of Maharashtra
Post Generalist Officer Scale II
No of Vacancy 150
Application Mode Online
Online Registration Starts 22nd March 2021
Last Date To Submit Application 06th April 2021
Selection Process Online Examination- Interview
Job Location Maharashtra
Official Site @bankofmaharashtra.in

Important Dates

Events Dates
Notification Release Date 20th March 2021
Opening Date of Online Application 22nd March 2021
Last Date of Submission of Online Application 06th April 2021
Last Date of Printing Application 21st April 2021
Admit Card for Online Examination 7-10 days before Exam
Online Examination Date To Be Notified
GD/Interview Dates To Be Notified

Vacancy Details

Categories No. of Vacancies
General 62
SC 22
ST 11
OBC 40
EWS 15
Total 29

*Age Relaxation to reserved category is applicable as per Government guidelines. Abbreviations: SC: Scheduled Caste, ST: Scheduled Tribe, OBC: Other Backward Classes, EWS: Economically Weaker Section, UR: Unreserved, PwBD: Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, OC: Orthopedically Challenged, VI: Visual Impairment, HI: Hearing Impairment, ID: Intellectual / Multiple Disabilities

Eligibility Criteria

Education Qualification

The candidate should possess a bachelor’s degree in any discipline with minimum 60% marks in the aggregate of all semesters/years (55% for SC / ST / OBC / PwBD). Passing of JAIIB & CAIIB is desirable.

OR

Should hold a professional qualification like CA / ICWA / CFA / FRM from a recognized University/ Institution/ Board recognized by Govt. of India / approved by Govt. Regulatory bodies.

Age Limit (as on 31/12/2020)

  • Minimum 25 years
  • Maximum 35 years

Experience

The candidate should have a Post Qualification Work Experience of 3 years as an officer in any Scheduled Commercial Bank. Experience in Credit-related areas/Branch Head/in Incharge is preferable.

Steps to Apply for Bank of Maharashtra Vacancies

  • Go to the official website @bankofmaharashtra.in
  • On the homepage, click on “Careers” appearing on the top of the screen.
  • Then Click on Recruitment Process>> Current Openings>>Know More
  • Click on Apply Online for recruitment of Generalist Officers in Scale-II 2021-22
  • Submit all the details correctly and click the submit button.
  • You can also apply from the direct link below.

Application Fees

  • UR / EWS / OBC – Rs. 1180
  • SC/ST – Rs. 118

Selection Process

The selection will be done on the basis of an online examination to be conducted through IBPS. The successful candidates shall be called for an interview in the proportion of 1:4 based on their ranking. The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in the Online Examination and Interview and accordingly a merit list shall be prepared for the selection of candidates.

Exam Pattern

The online examination will be Objective Type
A total of 150 questions will be asked for 150 marks
Section-wise distribution of marks, and time has been tabulated below
There is no negative marking for wrong answer

Subjects No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
English Language 20 20 15 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 20 20 15 minutes
Reasoning Ability 20 20 15 minutes
Professional Knowledge 90 90 75 minutes
Total 150 150 120 minutes

To Read Further Details Download PDF Given Below :



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Tuesday, March 30, 2021

Amendment in the provisions of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 w.e.f. 01.04.2021

Amendment in the provisions of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 w.e.f. 01.04.2021

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Corporate Laws & Corporate Governance Committee

26th March, 2021

ANNOUNCEMENT

Sub: Amendment in the provisions of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 w.e.f. 01.04.2021

This is to inform you that the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has amended the rules relating to Manner of books of accounts to be kept in electronic mode and Matters to be included in Board’s Report i.e. Rule 3 and Rule 8 of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 respectively w.e.f 01st April, 2021. The analysis of pre and post amendment of the same is as follows:

S No. Rule Pre-Amendment Post Amendment
1 Rule 3(1) of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014:

Manner of books of accounts to be kept in electronic mode

The books of account and other relevant books and papers maintained in electronic mode shall remain accessible in India so as to be usable for subsequent reference. The books of account and other relevant books and papers maintained in electronic mode shall remain accessible in India so as to be usable for subsequent reference

Provided that for the financial year commencing on or after the 1st day of April, 2021, every company which uses accounting software for maintaining its books of account, shall use only such accounting software which has a feature of recording audit trail of each and every transaction, creating an edit log of each change made in books of account along with the date when such changes were made and ensuring that the audit trail cannot be disabled

2 Rule 8(5) of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014:

Matters to be included in Board’s Report

In Rule 8(5) of the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, ten matters/clauses were specified which the Board report shall contain in addition to the information and details specified in subrule (4). Two additional clauses has been inserted in Rule 8(5) of the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, w.e.f. 01.04.2021 which are as follows:

xi. The details of application made or any proceeding pending under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (31 of 2016) during the year along with their status as at the end of the financial year.

xii. The details of difference between amount of the valuation done at the time of one time settlement and the valuation done while taking loan from the Banks or Financial Institutions along with the reasons thereof.

Accordingly, w.e.f. 01.04.2021, Rule 3(1) of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014 for using accounting software having feature of audit trail is applicable to all companies irrespective of its capital or turnover.

Further, two more matters are specified in sub rule 5 of rule 8 which shall be contained in Board report in addition to the details required sub rule (5) and (4) of Rule 8.

Notification is available at the link

http://www.mca.gov.in/Ministry/pdf/AccountsAmendmentRules_24032021.pdf

Members may take note of the above.

Sincerely Yours,

Chairman and Vice Chairman
Corporate Laws & Corporate Governance Committee
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India



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Waiver of the penalty for non-compliance with the requirement of dynamic QR Requirement

Waiver of the penalty for non-compliance with the requirement of dynamic QR Requirement

Waiver of the penalty for non-compliance with the requirement of dynamic QR code for B2C transactions as per Notification 14/2020 has been further extended till 30 June 2021, subject to the condition of compliance with the provisions from July 2021.

MINISTRY OF FINANCE
Department of Revenue
(CENTRAL BOARD OF INDIRECT TAXES AND CUSTOMS)
NOTIFICATION

New Delhi, the 30th March 2021

No. 06/2021–Central Tax

G.S.R. 223(E).—In exercise of the powers conferred by section 128 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017), the Government, on the recommendations of the Council, hereby makes the following amendments in notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), No. 89/2020 – Central Tax, dated the 29th November, 2020, published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3, Subsection (i), vide number G.S.R. 745(E), dated the 29th November, 2020, namely:–

In the said notification, –

(i) in the first paragraph, for the figures, letters and words, “31st day of March”, the figures, letters and words “30th day of June”, shall be substituted;

(ii) in the first paragraph, for the figures, letters and words, “01st day of April”, the figures, letters and words “1st day of July”, shall be substituted.

[F. No. CBEC-20/16/38/2020-GST]
RAJEEV RANJAN, Under Secy.

Note : The principal notification was published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part II, Section 3, Sub-section (i) vide notification No. 89/2020-Central Tax, dated the 29th November, 2020, published vide number G.S.R. 745(E), dated the 29th November, 2020.



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No Exemption of GST on rendered services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of imported agriculture products

No Exemption of GST on rendered services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of imported agriculture products

PUDUHERRY AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

The Relevant Text of the Order as follows :

4. The following submissions were made by the applicant:

4.1. They have interalia stated that the service of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of such agricultural produce, is covered under Sl.No.S4 (e) under heading 9986 of Notification No. 12/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 and that the Sl.No.54(e) under heading 9986 of Notification No.12/2O17 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2O17 reads as follows:

” Services relating to cultivation of plants and rearing of all life forms of animals, except the rearing of horses, for food, fibre, fuel raw material or other similar products or agricultural produce by way of —–

(a)……

(b)…….

(e) loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of agricultural produce;

(f)….

(h)…… :

and that the said services provided towards the agricultural produce is covered under the said exemption notification and the same would be applicable to them (applicant) also, as the notification is not restrictive only to the direct importer / trader / cultivator of the agricultural produce.”

4.2. The applicant have cited reference of the Advance Ruling of Andhra Pradesh vide Order No. AAR/API02/(GST)/2O18 in the case of S.S.S.V.K Cold Storage (P) Ltd., and have stated that AAR in the said case has accepted the applicant’s claim of applicability of exemption under Notification No.l2/2O17 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2O!7 under Entry No.54(e) for both farmers and also traders.

4.3. The applicant have cited the above Ruling and also on their interpretation of Notification No.12/2017, have filed that the service provided by them to any traders/importers of agricultural produce with respect to the loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing services of such agricultural produce, are also covered under the exemption Notification 12/2O17 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 under Entry No.54 (e).

4.4. The authorised signatory for the applicant Shri. K. Balaji, General Manager attended the personal hearing on 14.11.2019 and furnished copies of agreement entered into by them with the importers (service recepient), Sample invoices raised by M/s. KKPL, Bill of Entry of their recepients (for import of milling wheat in bulk).

SOME OF DISCUSSION AND FINDINGS

5. On perusal of the Notification 12/2O17 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017, it is clear that for getting eligibility for exemption under Sl.No.54 (e) covered under Heading 9986 the services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing have to fulfil the conditions mentioned therein i.e. the services need to be relating to cultivation of plants and rearing of all life forms of animals, except the rearing of horses, for food, fibre, fuel raw material or other similar products or agricultural produce.

5.1. It is further seen that the term “agricultural produce” has been defined in the same said Notification as below:

“(d) “agricultural produce” means any produce out of cultivation of plants and rearing of all life forms of animals, except the rearing of horses, for food, fibre, fuel, raw material or other similar products, on which either no further processing is done or such processing is done as is usually done by a cultivator or producer which does not alter its essential characteristics but makes it marketable for primary market; “

5.2. Thus, from the above it could be seen that the said services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing rendered by a taxpayer can be eligible for exemption only if they are rendered for the above purposes as clearly defined in the Notification i.e. only if the services are extended till the products are taken to primary market for disposal and as a corollary any services extended beyond the stage of primary market are not eligible for classification under the Service Accounting Code 9986 and hence cannot be considered for exemption under the said Notification.

5.3. Even though the term Agricultural Produce has been defined in the Notification / GST Act, the term “Primary Market’ has not been defined so however the term Primary Markets in common parlance generally means and include as a platform or a place, like a mandi, where the farmers are directly selling to the buyers and these are located in rural and interior areas and serve as focal points to a great majority of the farmers.

5.4. In the instant case in hand, from the copies of documents viz. the Bill of Entries, the invoice raised for supply of services and the agreements it could be seen that the applicant supplies the services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing after the cargo of ‘milling Wheat in bulk’, imported from foreign countries, reaches the port. It could be seen that the produce i.e. ‘wheat’in this case has been procured from the farmers in the foreign countries and exported to India.

The Question and Ruling as follows :

Whether exemption provided in Sl. No.54(e) under Heading 9986 of GST Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dt.28.06.2017 applies while rendering services such as loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing of imported agriculture products including wheat, to any importer or trader.

RULING

In view of the above we pass the following ruling:

1. The services of loading, unloading, packing, storage or warehousing rendered by the applicant after the cargo of ‘Wheat’ imported from a foreign country, reaches the Karaikal Port, are not eiigible for the Exemption provided in Sl.No.54(e) under Heading 9986 of the Notification No. 12/2O17 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

2. The instant application stands disposed of accordingly.

3. The applicant or the jurisdictional officer, if aggrieved by the ruling given above, may appeal to the Puducherry State Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling under Section 100 of the Puducherry GST / CGST Act, 2Ol7 within 30 days from the date of receipt of the Advance Ruling.



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ICAI announces Doctoral Scholarship Scheme 2021

ICAI announces Doctoral Scholarship Scheme 2021

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has announced Doctoral Scholarship Scheme, 2021.

Aimed at building greater research capacity, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has consistently been striving for excellence and distinction in the areas of Research and Innovation in the subjects of national importance and has supported the regulatory initiatives aimed towards bringing Indian economy back on the growth trajectory.

It is said that ‘Research is formalized curiosity’. Over a period of time, Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D.) Programme has evolved gradually from its purpose of ‘knowledge dissemination’ to ‘knowledge creation’. This shift in emphasis has, thus, created an ecosystem of advanced research and publications

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) through its Research Committee had introduced ICAI Doctoral Scholarship Scheme in 2020 for the members who wish to pursue Ph.D.

The said scheme seeks to provide requisite support by way of monthly scholarship to the eligible candidates with outstanding academic credentials, intellectual curiosity and needed discipline to make scholarly contribution. The candidates under the Scheme have to demonstrate their independent research ideas through publications in top class academic journals and make scholarly presentations of their work. Their contributions should extend not only to business practices, but also to public policy and governance.

Doctoral scholarship will be awarded to registered Ph.D. Scholars from UGC recognized reputed Indian Universities/ Deemed Universities/ Colleges, IIMs having University/IIMs approved Ph.D. Programme to pursue and complete their Doctoral Research in Auditing, Taxation, Commerce, Management and Accounting. The candidates must have confirmed Ph.D. Registration

OTHER CRITERIA FOR SHORTLISTING OF APPLICATION

  • Only the applicants who have applied for Ph.D. after the introduction of ICAI Doctoral Scholarship Scheme 2020 (May 7, 2020) are encouraged to apply for the scheme.
  • Application shall be forwarded by supervisor of the candidate for Ph.D. or any other competent signing authority of the University/College/Institution.
  • Candidates are advised to apply only if they are pursuing Ph.D. in the relevant and contemporary topic considering the current economic scenario matching with ICAI mandate, intent to add value to the society, scalable and having global relevance.

HOW TO APPLY?

Following documents must be sent to:

Research Committee
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
ICAI Bhawan
8th Floor, Administrative Building,
A-29, Sector 62, NOIDA-201309, UP.

1. Application Form

(https://resource.cdn.icai.org/61191research48482new.docx)

2. Research proposal & abstract (3000 and 300 words respectively)

3. Relevant Enclosures (Details given in Application Form

(https://resource.cdn.icai.org/61191research48482new.docx)

All the documents should be received before 15th June 2021 duly signed and stamped by Supervisor of the candidate for Ph.D. or any other competent signing authority of the University/ College/Institution.

PROCEDURE FOR THE AWARD OF SCHOLARSHIP

  • Applications are initially scrutinized by the Research Committee Secretariat.
  • Thereafter, Shortlisting Committee will short-list region wise meritorious proposals from the eligible applications.
  • Such applicants may also be invited for a presentation before Shortlisting Committee.
  • The recommendations of the Shortlisting Committee will then be placed before the Research Committee for its final approval.

AMOUNT OF SCHOLARSHIP

  • Rs. 50,000 per month Scholarship to be awarded to 5 scholars annually for the maximum period of 36 months.
  • Contingency grant will be admissible at the rate of Rs. 50,000 per annum.

JOINING AND RELEASE OF SCHOLARS

  • The scholar must join the scholarship within four weeks of the date of the award letter by submitting the required documents through the affiliating/administering institution. This may be extended by the ICAI up to six months in deserving cases.
  • The sanction of the scholarship will be issued initially for a period of one year, effective from the date of joining of the scholar in the scholarship. The renewal of the scholarship for the subsequent year shall be subject to the receipt of satisfactory annual progress report and at least one research paper in International Journal of repute and one in ICAI Journal.

MONITORING OF SCHOLARS

  • Regular monitoring of scholarship is done based on quarterly and annual progress report submitted by the scholar and duly forwarded by the supervisor.
  • The scholarship may be discontinued if research progress is found unsatisfactory or any ICAI rules are violated.
  • The ICAI may ask for annual presentation/mid-term appraisal of the research work.
  • During the scholarship, the scholars are required to publish yearly at least one research paper in International Journal of repute and one in ICAI Journal on the theme of the research undertaken and submit a copy of these to ICAI.

COMPLETION OF SCHOLARSHIP

  • If a scholar leaves the scholarship before its full-term, he/she must inform ICAI in advance.
  • The scholar shall be permitted to retain the grant released from the joining date till the date of leaving subject to submission of the following:

a) An updated progress report for the said period duly forwarded by the supervisor.
b) An undertaking for submission of Ph.D. Thesis within three year on a non-judicial stamp paper of Rs. 100/-.

  • In other case, the scholar can leave the scholarship by refunding the entire amount already released by the ICAI.
  • The scholars who have left the scholarship without completion and without approval from ICAI, are required to refund the entire amount of scholarship released with penalty/penal interest.
  • If, as a special case, a scholar remains on leave due to maternity/ medical/extra ordinary circumstances (not to exceed six months) duly approved by the ICAI, the tenure of scholarship will be extended by that period but the total amount of scholarship will not exceed 36 months.
  • On completion of the scholarship, the scholar should submit the following within one year:

a) Copy of the Ph. D thesis submitted to the University for Award of the degree along with a summary of the report (3000-4000 words) and research papers published.
b) These documents should be submitted in hard copy (one copy each of Ph. D thesis, summary and research papers) and a soft copy in a pen-drive.
c) In case a thesis is revised and re-submitted, a copy of the same should be submitted to the ICAI also.

  • The doctoral scholars must stay and work full time at the affiliating university/institute. However, they may go on field work with the express approval of their supervisor. For rest of the period, they must continue to work at the concerned university/institute. In case hostel facility is not available than stay in same city/town where university located. Where any institution having tie up with ICAI for research work and offering Ph.D degree; the scholar may be hostelled at COEs of ICAI under cosupervisor ship of ICAI officer in such case scholar has to pay COE Rs 15000 per month to ICAI as subsidized COEs usage charges.


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Amendment in the provisions relating to Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report

Amendment in the provisions relating to Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Corporate Laws & Corporate Governance Committee

26th March, 2021

ANNOUNCEMENT

Sub: Amendment in the provisions relating to Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report

This is to inform you that the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has issued a notification dated 24.03.2021 amending the provisions of Rule 11 of Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 i.e. Other Matters to be included in Auditor’s Report, w.e.f. 01st April 2021.

The analysis of pre and post amendment of other matters to be included in the Auditor’s Report is as follows:

S No. Rule Pre-Amendment Post Amendment
1 Rule 11 of Companies (Audit and Auditors)
Rules, 2014
The auditor’s report shall also include their views and comments on the following matters, namely:-

a) Whether the company has disclosed the impact, if any, of pending litigations on its financial  position in its financial statement.

b) Whether the company has made provision, as required under any law or accounting standards, for material foreseeable losses, if any, on long term contracts including derivative contracts.

c) Whether there has been any delay in transferring amounts, required to be transferred, to the Investor Education and Protection Fund by the company.

d) Whether the company had provided requisite disclosures in its financial statements as to holdings as well as dealings in Specified Bank Notes during the period from 8th November, 2016 to 30th December, 2016 and if so, whether these are in accordance with the books of accounts maintained by the company 

The auditor’s report shall also include their views and comments on the following matters, namely:-

a) Whether the company has disclosed the impact, if any, of pending litigations on its financial position in its financial statement.

b) Whether the company has made provision, as required under any law or accounting standards, for material foreseeable losses, if any, on long term contracts including derivative contracts.

c) Whether there has been any delay in transferring amounts, required to be transferred, to the Investor Education and Protection Fund by the company.

d) Omitted

e) (i) Whether the management has represented that, to the best of it’s knowledge and belief, other than as disclosed in the notes to the accounts, no funds have been advanced or loaned or invested (either from borrowed funds or share premium or any other sources or kind of funds) by the company to or in any other person(s) or entity(ies), including foreign entities (“Intermediaries”), with the understanding, whether recorded in writing or otherwise, that the Intermediary shall, whether, directly or indirectly lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the company (“Ultimate Beneficiaries”) or provide any guarantee, security or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries;

(ii) Whether the management has represented, that, to the best of it’s knowledge and belief, other than as disclosed in the notes to the accounts, no funds have been received by the company from any person(s) or entity(ies), including foreign entities (“Funding Parties”), with the understanding, whether recorded in writing or otherwise, that the company shall, whether, directly or indirectly, lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the Funding Party (“Ultimate Beneficiaries”) or provide any guarantee, security or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries; and

(iii) Based on such audit procedures that the auditor has considered reasonable and appropriate in the circumstances, nothing has come to their notice that has caused them to believe that the representations under sub-clause (i) and (ii) contain
any material mis-statement.

f) Whether the dividend declared or paid during the year by the company is in compliance with section 123 of the Companies Act, 2013.

g) Whether the company has used such accounting software for maintaining its books of account which has a feature of recording audit trail (edit log) facility and the same has been operated throughout the year for all transactions recorded in the software and the audit trail feature has not been tampered with and the audit trail has been preserved by the company as per the statutory requirements for record retention.

Accordingly, w.e.f. 01.04.2021, the matter related to specified bank notes during demonetisation period is no more required to be stated in “Other Matters” in the auditor’s report, however certain matters (as referred in analysis above) have been specified on which reporting needs to be done under “Other Matters” paragraph of Audit Report.

Notification is available at the link

http://www.mca.gov.in/Ministry/pdf/AuditAuditorsAmendmentRules_24032021.pdf

Members may take note of the above.

Sincerely Yours,

Chairman and Vice Chairman
Corporate Laws & Corporate Governance Committee
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India



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CBIC Circular on Revised timelimit for filling of BEs

CBIC Circular on Revised timelimit for filling of BEs

Circular No.08 /2021-Customs

F.No.450/77/2021-Cus-IV
Government of India
Ministry of Finance
Department of Revenue
Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
******

Room No.227B, North Block,
New Delhi, dated the 29th of March, 2021

To

All Principal Chief Commissioners/Chief Commissioners of Customs/Customs (Preventive),
All Principal Chief Commissioners/Chief Commissioners of Customs & Central tax,
All Principal Commissioners/Commissioners of Customs/Customs (Preventive),
All Principal Commissioners/Commissioners of Customs & Central tax,
All Principal Director Generals/Director Generals under CBIC.

Madam/ Sir,

Subject: Clarifications on the legislative changes in Section 46 of Customs Act, 1962–reg.

Reference is invited to the amendments in Section 46 of the Customs Act, 1962 introduced through the Finance Act, 2021.These changes facilitate pre-arrival processing and assessment of Bills of Entry (BE) by mandating their advance filing thus leading to significant decrease in the Customs clearance time. The amended Section 46 requires an importer to file a BE before the end of the day (including holidays) preceding the day of arrival of the vessel/aircraft/vehicle carrying the imported goods at a Customs port/station at which such goods are to be cleared for home consumption or warehousing. However, Board is empowered to prescribe different time limits for such filing in certain cases, but by not later than the end of the day of arrival of the vessel/aircraft/vehicle at the Customs port/station.

Changes in Section 46

2. In this regard, Board has carried out consultations with members of the trade and Customs field formations for the smooth implementation of the changes to the Customs Act, 1962 as above. After examining the relevant issues Board notes that the ground reality is that in case of short haul vessels/flights the importer may at times not get the Master Bill of Lading (MBL)/Master Airway Bill (MAWB) on the preceding day of the arrival of the vessel/aircraft. Further, when goods arrive by vehicle at a LCS, it is invariably the case that the import report is filed only at the time of its arrival. In these situations it would be difficult for the importer to adhere to the new requirement of Section 46, as above. Accordingly, with a view to facilitate the importers, Board has amended the Bill of Entry (Electronic Integrated Declaration) Regulations, 2018 by issue of Notification No.34/2021-Customs(N.T.), dated 29.03.2021 thereby prescribing different time-limits for filing BE in respect of goods imported by various modes of transport. It may be noted that, the existing provision that a BE may be presented upto 30 days prior to the expected arrival of the aircraft or vessel or vehicle carrying the imported goods continues. Thus, with certain exceptions, as notified, the BE can now be filed anytime from 30 days prior to the expected arrival of the aircraft or vessel or vehicle upto the end of day preceding the day of such arrival. Similarly, changes have been carried out in the Bill of Entry (Forms) Regulations, 1976 vide Notification No.35/2021-Customs (N.T.) dated 29.03.2021 in case of manual filing of BEs.

2.1. For clarification of the importers and trade, the changes that have been made effective vide the above stated notification dated 29.03.2021 are as follows :-

S.No.

(1)

Customs Station

(2)

Bill of Entry is Required to be Filed Latest by End of the Day of Arrival of the Vessel/Aircraft/Vehicle

(3)

Bill of Entry is Required to be Filed Latest by the End of Day Preceding the Day of Arrival of the Vessel/Aircraft/Vehicle

(4)

1. Sea Port Imports consigned from following countries viz.

1. Bangladesh
2. Maldives
3. Myanmar
4. Pakistan
5. Sri Lanka

Imports consigned from all countries other than those mentioned in column (3)
2. Airport All imports None
3. Land
Customs
Station (LCS)
All imports None
4. Inland
Container
Depot (ICD)
None All Imports

2.2. The importers are encouraged to file the BE well in advance and definitely by the above-mentioned timelines. In accordance with the said Section 46 read with the said Regulations, a BE that is filed after the above timelines shall attract late charges. Similarly, relevant dates for determining the late charges as clarified earlier by Circular No. 12/2017-Customs, dated 31st March, 2017 for different types of Customs Stations remains unchanged i.e., Entry Inwards for the Seaport and Date of Arrival at the Airport, ICDs/Air Freight Stations and Land Customs Stations.

2.3 In respect of import goods arriving at seaports, consigned country (refer column 3 of the sl.no 1 of above table) refers to the country where the goods have been consigned by the exporter of the goods by way of Bill of Lading (HAWB/ HBL, or MAWB/ MBL, as the case may be). The same is already being mentioned as the country of consignment in the Bill of Entry. To illustrate, in respect of the goods consigned from Sri Lanka by the Sri Lanka exporter, Bill of Entry is to be filed latest by the end of the day of the arrival, whereas in respect of the goods consigned from let us say, Hong Kong, but merely transhipped through Sri Lanka, Bill of Entry is required to be filed latest by the end of day preceding the day of the arrival of the vessel.

Removal of the need for MBL/MAWB in Advance BE :

3. Several representations have been received regarding the non-availability of MBL/MAWB within the prescribed time-limits leading to delay in filing advance BE. Upon carefully examining this matter and noting the genuine difficulties of the importers, Board has decided to do away with the requirement of MBL/MAWB for the filing of advance BE. Only the reference to House Bill of Lading (HBL)/ House Airway Bill (HAWB) would be sufficient at the time of advance filing. Thus, an importer can now file the advance BE on the strength of either a MBL/MAWB or the HBL/HAWB or both.

3.2 Further, to regularize the BE filed in advance with the Arrival Manifest (IGM) when a BE has been filed only with the HBL/HAWB (and not MBL/MAWB), it is proposed to enable an option in ICEGATE for the importer to subsequently update the MBL/MAWB in the BE. This amendment to the already filed BE would be auto approved in the Customs Automated System without the need for approval of a Customs officer. An automated approval by the Customs Automated System is supported by section 149 of the Customs Act, 1962 amended vide Finance Act, 2021. Since all such amendments would be auto approved by the Customs Automated System, these would not be subject to levy of fees under the Levy of Fees (Customs Documents) Regulations, 1970.

4. To implement the changes stated above, Directorate General of Systems would be shortly issuing advisories related to the changes in the system.

5. The Trade and field formations may be sensitized suitably by issue of Public Notice. Difficulties, if any, may please be brought to the notice of Board. Hindi version follows.

Yours faithfully,

(Ananth Rathakrishnan)
Deputy Secretary (Customs)



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CBDT Instructions on Allotment of one PAN to two or more taxpayers

CBDT Instructions on Allotment of one PAN to two or more taxpayers

DIRECTORATE OF INCOME TAX (SYSTEMS)

F.No ADG(S)-1/PAN/2020-21/6177                                 ITBA-PAN INSTRUCTION No. 9

Dated: 25-03-2021

To,

All Principal Chief Commissioners of Income Tax,

Sir/Madam,

Sub: – Allotment of one PAN to two or more taxpayers- resolution regarding.

Instances of allotment of one PAN to two persons and in rare cases even to more than two persons have come to the notice of Directorate of Income-tax(Systems). In this regard the Directorate formulated a policy and the same was issued vide AIS Instruction No. 82 dated 21.06.20 13 which stated that “the person who has been allotted PAN earlier in time will be the actual owner of that PAN and the same will be retained by him and the person who has been inadvertently allotted the same PAN later in time, will have to obtain a new PAN by surrendering his wrongly allotted PAN”.

2. However, application of the said instruction has resulted in some grievances. After considering the grievances raised and with the approval of Competent Authority the above instruction is partially modified as follows:-

S. No. First PAN holder  Second PAN holder  Resolution
1 Not filing ITR filing ITR First PAN holder will be allotted a new PAN as per existing procedure and second PAN holder wi ll continue to retain the original PAN
2 Not filing ITR Not filing ITR Existing procedure will be followed i.e. first allottee will retain the original PAN and second allottee wi II be given a new PAN
3 Filed ITR for part years Filed ITR for part years To be resolved after gathering information with regard to the pending demands and refunds in respect to those returns filed, with the approval of ADG(System)-1
4 Any other case not covered above Resolution will be made after gathering infonnation with regard to the pending demands and refunds in respect to the returns filed by the PAN holders, with the approval of ADG (System)-I .

3. Therefore, it is requested that the field officers and RCCs may be directed to deal with such type of cases relating to allotment of one PAN to two or more taxpayers as per this instruction after proper analysis of PAN details along with examination of audit log of PAN under consideration.

(Sanjai Kumar Yadav)

Addl.DIT(S)-I,
O/o ADG(S)-I , New Delhi



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How to give reply of intimation of high value information on Income Tax Compliance Portal

How to give reply of intimation of high-value information on Income Tax Compliance Portal

These days many Taxpayers are getting this message:

Attention XYZ (XXXXX1900X), The Income Tax Department has identified high-value information which does not appear to be in line with the Income Tax Return filed for Assessment Year 2020-21 (relating to FY 2019-20). Please revise ITR / submit online response under the e-Campaign tab on Compliance Portal (CP). Access CP by logging into the e-filing portal and clicking on the ‘Compliance Portal’ link under ‘My Account’ or ‘Compliance’ tab – ITD.

 

This article deals with how can you give reply of such notices.

Now, what is a High Value Transaction?

These transactions are transactions of high monetary value. They are reported to Income Tax Department when Form 61A or commonly called Statement of Financial Transaction is filed by various entities like banks, post offices, companies, etc.

Why these kinds of Transactions are reported?

The transactions that are not in line with the profile of taxpayers are required to be reported.

  • Non-Filing of ITR: You have a transaction on which TDS has been deducted, but ITR has not been filed. Or you are having potential Tax Liability is you have not filed ITR.
  • Tax Evasion: There is a transaction on which taxpayer is having potential Tax Liability and that transaction is not disclosed in ITR.

Department has various means through which they get information, for example:

1. Sale Related Transactions coming in Form GSTR-1 or GSTR-3B:

If high value of Sales are reported in your GSTR-1, Advance Tax is required to be paid if you have Taxable Income.

2. TDS Deducted on income:

If TDS is deducted in certain Income, then Advance Tax is required to be paid if you have Taxable Income.

3. Purchase/ Sale of Immovable Property:

Registrar is required to report transactions related to Purchase/ Sale of Immovable Property of more than Rs. 30 Lakh. In case of a sale, Advance Tax is required to be paid on the capital gain income if any. In the case of Purchase, the income tax department may ask you your source of income, especially if you are a Non-Filler of ITR.

4. Purchase/ Sale of Movable Property:

Transactions related to the Purchase of Luxury cars, Gold, etc. are also reported. In the future, the department may ask you the source of Income in case of purchase of such items.

5. Money Withdrawn from Bank Account:

Provisions of TDS are applicable u/s 194 in case of money withdrawn from Bank Account. The same will come in the purview of your High-Value Transaction.

Click here to view TDS rate Chart

Click here to view TCS Rate Chart

6. Sale and Purchase of Goods of more than Rs. 50 Lakh will also be considered as a high-value transaction.

TDS ON PURCHASE OF GOODS EXCEEDING RS 50 LAKH

TCS ON SALE OF GOODS EXCEEDING RS 50 LAKH

7. Cash Deposit in Bank:

Cash deposits aggregating to ten lakh rupees or more in a financial year, in one or more accounts are considered as High-Value Transactions.

CASH RECEIPT ABOVE RS 2 LAKHS IN INCOME TAX TREATMENT

8. Fixed Deposit in Bank:

  • One or more time deposits/ Fixed Deposit of a person aggregating to ten lakh rupees or more in a financial year of a person are considered as High-Value Transactions.
  • Time deposits made through renewal of another time deposit is not a High-Value Transaction.

9. Credit Card payments:

  • Cash Payments of one lakh rupees or more
  • Other than Cash Payments of ten lakh rupees or more

How to give a reply of intimation of High-Value Transactions?

Steps of giving reply to the intimation of High-Value Transactions:

Step 1: Log in to Income Tax Portal

Step 2: Go to Compliance Tab

Step 3: Once you click on the Compliance Portal tab, you will be directed to Compliance Portal.

 Once you select the transactions, You can give Individual Response or Bulk Response:

Bulk Response:

Response for all the transactions can be any of the following:

1. Information is correct
2. Information is not fully correct
3. Information relates to other Person / Year
4. Information is duplicate/included in other displayed information
5. Not aware of this Information

Individual Response:

Response for the specific individual transaction can be any of the following:

1. Information is correct
2. Information is not fully correct
3. Information relates to other Person / Year
4. Information is duplicate/included in other displayed information
5. Not aware of this Information

 



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Sunday, March 28, 2021

Finance Act 2021 notified by Ministry of Law and Justice

Finance Act 2021 notified by Ministry of Law and Justice

Finance Act 2021, giving effect to the Central Government’s financial proposals for the financial year 2021-2022 has been notified by Government.

Sections 2 to 88 shall come into force on the 1st day of April 2021.

Sections 108 to 123 shall come into force on such date as may be notified by Central Government.

Brief important Changes are as follows:

  • No Change in Income Tax Slabs
  • GST Audit Abolished
  • Prefilled ITRs – Additionally Capital Gain, Dividend Income to be prefilled
  • TDS on Purchase of Goods
  • Exemption for filing ITR for Senior Citizens in specific cases
  • Discontinuance of Income-Tax Settlement Commission w.e.f. February 2021
  • Reduction of time limit for completing the assessment
  • Expense Disallowance in case of Payment by employer of employee contribution to a fund on or before due date
  • Extending due date for filing return of income in some cases, reducing time to file belated return and to revise original return and also to remove difficulty in cases of defective returns
  • Taxation of proceeds of high premium unit-linked insurance policy
  • TDS/TCS on non-filer at higher rates

The notification is given below for reference:



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Saturday, March 27, 2021

Bombay HC stayed the demand notice seeking Service Tax from Advocate

Bombay HC stayed the demand notice seeking Service Tax from Advocate

The Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Sanjiv Madhusudan Shah v. Assistant Commissioner of Central and Service Tax and ors. [Writ Petition (L) No. 646 of 2021 dated January 12, 2021] has stayed a demand notice issued, seeking to levy service tax upon an Advocate.

Facts:-

Sanjiv Madhusudan Shah (“the Petitioner”), who is an Advocate by profession vide this writ petition has challenged the to show cause cum demand notice dated December 28, 2020 (“SCN”), issued to the Petitioner by the Assistant Commissioner of Central Goods and Services Tax (“CGST”), Mumbai West, seeking to levy service tax upon the Petitioner for the financial year 2014-15.

The Petitioner submitted that the Central Government has issued several exemption notifications whereby services provided by an individual as an advocate or as a partnership firm of Advocates by way of legal services are exempt from the charge of Service Tax. That apart, there is a provision for recovering Service Tax from the service recipient. Ignoring the same, the show cause cum demand notice has been issued mechanically.

Issue:

Whether service tax can be levied on an Advocate?

Held:

The Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Writ Petition (L) NO. 646 of 2021 dated January 12, 2021 issued notice to the Assistant Commissioner returnable in eight weeks for seeking response on the matter. Further, as an interim measure granted stay of the SCN until further orders.

DISCLAIMER: The views expressed are strictly of the author and A2Z Taxcorp LLP. The contents of this article are solely for informational purpose. It does not constitute professional advice or recommendation of firm. Neither the author nor firm and its affiliates accepts any liabilities for any loss or damage of any kind arising out of any information in this article nor for any actions taken in reliance thereon.



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Not auditor’s job to be a bloodhound : ICAI president

Not auditor’s job to be a bloodhound : ICAI president

CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS cannot be bloodhounds converting statutory audits to forensic audits, Institute of Chartered Accountants of India(ICAI) president Niahr Jambusaria said on Friday, adding that the regulator was trying to convey this to the government and investigation agencies.

“I dont’t think an auditor’s job is to become a bloodhound. He is a watchdog, at the most, what you can expect is that he becomes a sniffer dog who can smell and just pass on the feeling to the audit committee, “said Jambusaria, adding that auditors can recommend that a company go for a forensic auidt but cannot initiate investigate themselves.

“The Institute is trying to communicate (this) to stakeholders, even to the SFIO (Serious Fraud Investigation Office), EOW (Economic Offenses Wing) and the government, “he headed.



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CBDT notifies New Scheme Forms & Rules for Trusts Online Registration

CBDT notifies New Scheme Forms & Rules for Trusts Online Registration

As per the new scheme Old Trusts are required to apply for fresh Online Registration

MINISTRY OF FINANCE

(Department of Revenue)

(CENTRAL BOARD OF DIRECT TAXES)

NOTIFICATION

New Delhi, the 26th March, 2021

INCOME-TAX

G.S.R. 212(E).—In exercise of the powers conferred by clauses (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) of first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10, ninth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10, sub-clauses (i) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) of clause (ac) of sub-section (1) of section 12A, sub-section (3) of section 12AB, first and fifth proviso to sub-section (1) of section 35, sub-section (1A) of section 35 , clauses (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) of first proviso to sub-section (5) of section 80G, third proviso to sub-section (5) of section 80G and clauses (viii) and (ix) of sub-section (5) of section 80G, read with section 295 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961), the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby makes the following rules further to amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962, namely:-

1. Short title and commencement – (1) These rules may be called the Income-tax (6th Amendment) Rules, 2021.

(2) They shall come into force on the 1st day of April, 2021.

2. In the Income-tax Rules, 1962 (hereinafter referred to as the principal rules), for rule 2C, the following rule shall be substituted, namely: –

“2C. Application for the purpose of grant of approval of a fund or trust or institution or university or any hospital or other medical institution under clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iii) or clause (iv) of first proviso to clause (23C) of Section 10. (1)An application under clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iii) or clause (iv) of first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 for the grant of approval of a fund or trust or institution, or university or other educational institution or any hospital or other medical institution (hereinafter referred to as ‘the applicant’) shall be made in the following Form, namely:-

(i) Form No. 10A in case of application under clause (i) or clause (iv) of first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner authorised by the Board;

or

(ii) Form No. 10AB in case of application under clause (ii) or clause (iii) of first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under the said proviso.

(2) The application under sub-rule (1) shall be accompanied by the following documents, as required by Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, namely: —

(a) where the applicant is created or established, under an instrument, self-certified copy of such instrument creating or establishing the applicant;

(b) where the applicant is created or established, otherwise than under an instrument, self-certified copy of the document evidencing the creation or establishment of the applicant;

(c) self-certified copy of registration with Registrar of Companies or Registrar of Firms and Societies or Registrar of Public Trusts, as the case may be;

(d) self-certified copy of registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (42 of 2010), if the applicant is registered under such Act;

(e) self-certified copy of existing order granting approval under clause (23C) of section 10;

(f) self-certified copy of order of rejection of application for grant of approval under clause (23C) of section 10, if any;

(g) where the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of the applicant relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up;

(h) where a business undertaking is held by the applicant as per the provisions of sub-section (4) of section 11 and the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of such business undertaking relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up and self-certified copy of the report of audit as per the provisions of section 44AB for such period;

(i) where the income of the applicant includes profits and gains of business as per the provisions of sub-section (4A) of section 11 and the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of such business relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up and self-certified copy of the report of audit as per the provisions of section 44AB for such period;

(j) note on the activities of the applicant.

(3) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(4) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(5) On receipt of an application in Form No. 10A, the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, authorised by the Board shall pass an order in writing granting approval under clause (i) or (iii) of the second proviso read with the ninth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 in Form No. 10AC and issue a sixteen digit alphanumeric Unique Registration Number (URN) to the applicants making application as per clause (i) of the sub-rule (1).

(7) In case of an application made under clause (iv) of first proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 during previous year beginning on 1st day of April, 2021, the provisional approval shall be effective from the assessment year beginning on 1st day of April, 2022.

(8) In case of an application made in Form 10AB under clause (ii) of the sub-rule (1), the order of approval or rejection or cancellation under second proviso read with the ninth proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 shall be in form 10AD and in case if the approval is granted, sixteen digit alphanumeric number Unique Registration Number (URN) shall be issued, by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner referred to in second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10.

(9) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the form, data structure, standards and procedure of:

(a) furnishing and verification of Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be;

(b) passing the order under second proviso to clause (23C) of section 10.

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the form so furnished or the order so passed.”.

(3) In the principal rules, in rule 5C,-

(a) In sub-rule (1),−

(A) in clause (i), for the words, figures and letters “duplicate in Form No. 3CF-I”, the words, figure and letters “Form No. 3CF” shall be substituted;

(B) in clause (ii), for the words, figures and letters “duplicate in Form No. 3CF-II”, the words, figure and letters “Form No. 3CF” shall be substituted;

(b) after sub-rule (1), the following sub-rules shall be inserted, namely:-

“(1A) Form No. 3CF shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(1B) Form No. 3CF shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(1C) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the form, data structure, standards and procedure of furnishing and verification of Form No. 3CF;

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the said application made.”;

(c) In sub-rule (2), for the figures and letters “3CF-I”, the figure and letters “3CF” shall be substituted;

(d) In sub-rule (3), for the figures, letters and words “3CF-I or, as the case may be, Form No. 3CFII”, the figure and letters “3CF” shall be substituted;

(e) In sub-rule (5), for the figures, letters and words “3CF-I or Form No. 3CF-II”, the figure and letters “3CF” shall be substituted.

(4) In the principal rules, after rule 5C, the following rule shall be inserted, namely: –

“5CA Intimation under Fifth Proviso to sub-section (1) of section 35. (1). An intimation under fifth proviso to sub-section (1) of section 35 by a research association, university, college or other institution referred to in clause (ii) or clause (iii) or the company referred to in clause (iia) of said sub-section (hereinafter referred to as ‘the applicant’) shall be made in Form No.10A to the Principal Commissioner of Commissioner authorised by the Board.

(2) The application under sub-rule (1) shall be accompanied by the following documents, as required by Form No.10A, namely:—

(a) where the applicant is created or established under an instrument, self-certified copy of the instrument;

(b) where the applicant created or established otherwise than under an instrument, self-certified copy of the document evidencing the creation or establishment of the applicant;

(c) self-certified copy of registration with Registrar of Companies or Registrar of Firms and Societies or Registrar of Public Trusts or other registration document, as the case may be;

(d) self-certified copy of registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (42 of 2010), if the applicant is registered under such Act;

(e) self-certified copy of existing Notification granting approval under section 35.

(3) Form No. 10A shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(3) Form No. 10A shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(4) Form No. 10A shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(5) On receipt of an application in Form No. 10A, the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, authorised by the Board shall issue a sixteen digit alphanumeric Unique Registration Number (URN) to the applicants making application as per sub-rule (1).

(6) If, at any point of time, it is noticed that Form No.10A has not been duly filled in by not providing, fully or partly, or by providing false or incorrect information or documents required to be provided under sub-rules (1) or (2) or by not complying with the requirements of sub- rules (3) or (4), the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, after giving an opportunity of being heard, may cancel the Unique Registration Number (URN) issued under sub-rule (5)and such Unique Registration Number (URN) shall be deemed to have never been issued.

(7) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the data structure, standards and procedure of furnishing and verification of Form No. 10A; and

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the said form so furnished.”.

(5) In the principal rules, in rule 5F, in sub-rule (2),-

(i) in clause (a), for the words, figures and letters “duplicate in Form No. 3CF-III”, the words, figure and letters “Form No. 3CF” shall be substituted;

(ii) after clause (a) the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:-

“(aa) Form No. 3CF shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(ab) Form No. 3CF shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(ac) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the form, data structure, standards and procedure of furnishing and verification of Form No.3CF;

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the said application made.”.

(iii) in clause (b) for the figures and letters “3CF-III”, the figure and letters “3CF” shall be substituted;

(iv) in clause (d), for the figures and letters “3CF-III” the figure and letters “3CF” shall be substituted.

(6) In the principal rules , for rule 11AA, the following rule shall be substituted, namely: –

“11AA . Requirement for approval of institution of fund under clause (vi) of sub-section (5) of section 80G. (1) An application for approval under clause (vi) of sub-section (5) of section 80G, the institution or fund (hereinafter referred to as ‘the applicant’) shall be made in the following Form, namely:-

(a) Form No. 10A in case of application under clause (i) or clause (iv) of first proviso to subsection (5) of section 80G to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner authorised by the Board; or

(b) Form No. 10AB in case of application under clause (ii) or clause (ii) of first proviso to subsection (5) of section 80G to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner authorised under the said proviso.

(2) The application under sub-rule (1) shall be accompanied by the following documents, as required by Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, namely:—

(a) where the applicant is created, or established, under an instrument, self-certified copy of the instrument;

(b) where the applicant is created, or established, otherwise than under an instrument, self-certified copy of the document evidencing the creation or establishment of the applicant;

(c) self-certified copy of registration with Registrar of Companies or Registrar of Firms and Societies or Registrar of Public Trusts, as the case may be;

(d) self-certified copy of registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010(42 of 2010), if the applicant is registered under such Act;

(e) self-certified copy of existing order granting registration under clause (vi) of subsection (5) of section 80G;

(f) self-certified copy of order of rejection of application for grant of approval under clause (vi) of sub-section (5) of section 80G, if any;

(g) where the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of the applicant relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up;

(h) note on the activities of the applicant.

(3) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(4) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(5) On receipt of an application in Form No.10A, the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, authorised by the Board shall pass an order in writing granting approval under clause (i) or (iii) of the second proviso read with third proviso of sub-section (5) of section 80G in form 10AC and issue a sixteen digit alphanumeric Unique Registration Number (URN) to the applicants making application as per clause (a) of the sub-rule (1).

(6) If, at any point of time, it is noticed that form 10A has not been duly filled in by not providing, fully or partly, or by providing false or incorrect information or documents required to be provided under sub-rule (1) or (2) or by not complying with the requirements of sub- rule (3) or (4), the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, as referred to in sub-rule (5), after giving an opportunity of being heard, may cancel the approval granted in Form No. 10AC and Unique Registration Number (URN), issued under sub-rule (5),and such approval or such Unique Registration Number (URN) shall be deemed to have never been granted or issued.

(7) In case of an application made under clause (iv) of first proviso to sub-section(5) of section 80G, the provisional approval shall be effective from date of order, as referred to in sub- rule (5).

(8) In case of an application made in Form No. 10AB under clause (ii) of the sub-rule (1), the order of approval or rejection or cancellation under second proviso to sub-section (5) of section 80G shall be in Form No. 10AD and in case if the approval is granted, sixteen digit alphanumeric number Unique Registration Number (URN) shall be issued, by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner referred to in second proviso to sub-section (5) of section 80G.

(9) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the data structure, standards and procedure of ,-

(a) furnishing and verification of Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be;

(b) passing the order under second proviso to sub-section (5) of section 80G.

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the said application made or order so passed as the case may be.”.

(7) In the principal rules, for rule 17A, the following rule shall be substituted, namely:-

“17A Application for registration of charitable or religious trusts etc. (1). An application under subclause (i) or sub-clause(ii) or sub-clause(iii) or sub-clause(iv) or sub-clause(v) or sub-clause(vi) of clause (ac)of sub-section (1) of section 12A for registration of a charitable or religious trust or institution (hereinafter referred to as ‘the applicant’) shall be made in the following Form, namely:-

(i) Form No. 10A in case of application under sub-clause (i) or (vi) of clause (ac)of sub-section (1) of section 12A to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner authorised by the Board; or

(ii) Form No. 10AB in case of application under sub-clause (ii) or (iii) or (iv) or (v) of clause (ac)of sub-section (1) of section 12A to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under the said clause.

(2) The application under sub-rule (1) shall be accompanied by the following documents, as required by Form Nos.10A or 10AB, as the case may be, namely:—

(a) where the applicant is created, or established, under an instrument, self-certified copy of such instrument creating or establishing the applicant;

(b) where the applicant is created, or established, otherwise than under an instrument, self-certified copy of the document evidencing the creation or establishment of the applicant;

(c) self-certified copy of registration with Registrar of Companies or Registrar of Firms and Societies or Registrar of Public Trusts, as the case may be;

(d) self-certified copy of registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010(42 of 2010), if the applicant is registered under such Act;

(e) self-certified copy of existing order granting registration under section 12A or section 12AA or section 12AB, as the case may be;

(f) self-certified copy of order of rejection of application for grant of registration under section 12A or section 12AA or section 12AB, as the case may be, if any;

(g) where the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of the applicant relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up;

(h) where a business undertaking is held by the applicant as per the provisions of sub-section (4) of section 11 and the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of such business undertaking relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up and self-certified copy of the report of audit as per the provisions of section 44AB for such period;

(i) where the income of the applicant includes profits and gains of business as per the provisions of sub-section (4A) of section 11 and the applicant has been in existence during any year or years prior to the financial year in which the application for registration is made, self-certified copies of the annual accounts of such business relating to such prior year or years (not being more than three years immediately preceding the year in which the said application is made) for which such accounts have been made up and self-certified copy of the report of audit as per the provisions of section 44AB for such period;

(j) self-certified copy of the documents evidencing adoption or modification of the objects;

(k) note on the activities of the applicant.

(3) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be furnished electronically, —

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(4) Form Nos. 10A or 10AB, as the case may be, shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the applicant.

(5) On receipt of an application in Form No. 10A, the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, authorised by the Board shall pass an order in writing granting registration under clause (a), or clause (c), of sub-section (1) of section 12AB read with sub-section (3) of the said section in Form No.10AC and issue a sixteen digit alphanumeric Unique Registration Number (URN) to the applicants making application as per clause (i) of the sub-rule (1).

(6) If, at any point of time, it is noticed that Form No. 10A has not been duly filled in by not providing, fully or partly, or by providing false or incorrect information or documents required to be provided under sub-rules (1) or (2) or by not complying with the requirements of sub-rules (3) or (4), the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, as referred to in sub-rule (5), after giving an opportunity of being heard, may cancel the registration in Form No. 10AC and Unique Registration Number (URN), issued under sub-rule (5), and such registration or such Unique Registration Number (URN) shall be deemed to have never been granted or issued.

(7) In case of an application made under sub-clause (vi) of clause (ac) of sub-section (1) of section 12A during previous year beginning on 1st day of April, 2021, the provisional registration shall be effective from the assessment year beginning on 1st day of April, 2022.

(8) In case of an application made in Form No. 10AB under clause (ii) of the sub-rule (1), the order of registration or rejection or cancellation of registration under sub-clause (ii) of clause (b) of subsection (1) of section 12AB shall be in Form No.10AD and in case if the registration is granted, sixteen digit alphanumeric number Unique Registration Number (URN)shall be issued by the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner referred to in of sub-section (1) of section 12AB.

(9) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall:

(i) lay down the form, data structure, standards and procedure of ,-

(a) furnishing and verification of Form Nos. 10A or 10AB ,as the case may be;

(b) passing the order under clause (a), sub-clause (ii) of clause (b) and clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 12AB.

(ii) be responsible for formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the said application made or order so passed as the case may be.”.

(8) In the principal rules, after rule 18AAAAA, the following rule shall be inserted, namely: –

“18AB. Furnishing of Statement of particulars and certificate under clause (viii) and clause (ix) of sub-section (5) of section 80G or under sub-section (1A) of section 35. (1) For the purpose of clause (viii) of sub-section (5) of section 80G and clause (i) to sub-section (1A) of section 35, the prescribed authority shall be the Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems) as the case may be.

(2) Statement of particulars required to be furnished by any research association, university, college or other institution or company or fund (hereinafter referred to as reporting person) under clause (viii) of sub-section (5) of section 80G or under clause (i) to sub-section (1A) of section 35 shall be furnished in respect of each financial year, beginning with the financial year 2021-2022, in Form No. 10BD and shall be verified in the manner indicated therein.

(3) The reporting person, referred to in sub-rule (2), shall, while aggregating the amounts for determining the sums received for reporting in respect of any person, —

(i) take into account all the donations of the same nature paid by that person during the financial year; and

(ii) proportionately attribute the value of the donation or the aggregated value of all the donations to all the persons, in a case where the donation is recorded in the name of more than one person and where no proportion is specified by the donors, attribute equally to all the donors.

(4) Form No. 10BD, shall be furnished electronically,—

(i) under digital signature, if the return of income is required to be furnished under digital signature;

(ii) through electronic verification code in a case not covered under clause (i).

(5) Form No. 10BD shall be verified by the person who is authorised to verify the return of income under section 140, as applicable to the assessee.

(6) The reporting person shall furnish the certificate as referred to in clause (ix) of sub-section (5) of section 80G or in clause (ii) to sub-section (1A) to section 35, to the donor in Form No. 10 BE specifying the amount of donation received during financial year from such donor, beginning with the financial year 2021-2022.

(7) The Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the Director General of Income-tax (Systems), as the case may be, shall –

(i) lay down the, ,-

(a) data structure, standards and procedure of furnishing and verification of Form No. 10BD, single or multiple;

(b) the procedure to submit correction statement for rectification of any mistake or to add, delete or update the information furnished in Form No. 10BD; and

(c) the procedure, formats and standards for the purposes of generation and download of certificates in Form No. 10BE

(ii) be responsible for,-

(a) formulating and implementing appropriate security, archival and retrieval policies in relation to the Form No.10BD so furnished; and

(b) the day-to-day administration in relation to the generation and download of certificates in Form No. 10BE, from the web portal specified by him or the person authorised by him.

(8) The certificate referred to in sub-rule (6) is required to be furnished to the donor on or before the 31st May, immediately following the financial year in which the donation is received.

(9) Form No. 10BD referred to in sub-rule (1) shall be furnished on or before the 31stMay, immediately following the financial year in which the donation is received.”.

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